IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA CIVIL ORIGINAL JURISDICTION WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. OF 2015 UNDER ARTICLE 32 OF THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA IN THE MATTER OF Shamnad Basheer … VERSUS Union of India & Others RESPONDENTS … PAPER BOOK (KINDLY SEE INSIDE FOR INDEX) ADVOCATE FOR THE PETITIONER: LIZ MATHEW PETITIONER B SYNOPSIS The present Writ Petition filed in public interest seeks the immediate intervention of this Hon’ble Court against the arbitrary, unreasonable, inconsistent, opaque, negligent, substandard and inefficient implementation of the Common Law Admission Test (hereinafter the ‘CLAT’) held by Respondents every year for the purpose of admissions to Graduate and PostGraduate programs in the discipline of law offered at the premier National Law Universities (NLUs) in India. The actions of the Respondents are in direct violation of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14 and Article 21 to all students who sit for these exams, hoping to enter the hallowed halls of legal learning. The Petitioner is a citizen of India and a reputed legal scholar with over fifteen years of experience, particularly in the areas of legal education and intellectual property. The petitioner is the Founder and Managing Trustee of IDIA (‘Increasing Diversity by Increasing Access to Legal Education’), a non-profit pan India movement to train underprivileged students and help transform them to leading lawyers and community advocates. Till last year, the Petitioner was the Ministry of Human Resource Development Chair Professor in Intellectual Property Law at the West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata (‘WBNUJS’). The Petitioner is also a recipient of the prestigious Infosys Foundation Prize for the year 2014, for his contributions to legal theory and practice, particularly in the area of legal education, access to law and justice, and intellectual property rights. The Petitioner has proactively intervened and C assisted the courts in matters of significant public importance. Notably the Petitioner has assisted this Hon'ble Court in Novartis v. Union of India [(2013) 6 SCC 1] as an intervener-cum-amicus in the interpretation of Indian patent law. The present Petition is based on authentic information and public documents sourced from under the Right to Information Act, 2005 (‘RTI Act’), authentic news reports, opinions and writings of eminent experts and scholars on legal education and other publicly available information. As of date, a number of similar universities have been set up in various other States for promoting legal education and research. The NLUs primarily offer a 5 Year Integrated Graduate Program, conferring degrees that combine a basic bachelor’s degree (such as a B.A., B.Com., B.Sc. etc) with a gradudate law degree (LL.B.), resulting ultimately in a combined degree (B.A, LL.B; B.Sc. LL.B. etc). They also offer a multitude of specialized Post-Graduate Programs conferring degrees equivalent to Masters in Law (LL.M.), Master of Philosophy (M.Phil.) and Doctor of Philosophy (Ph.D.). As on date, there are Eighteen (18) National Law Universities (NLU’s) across the country. Pursuant to the orders of this Hon’ble Court in Varun Bhagat v Union of India and Others W.P. No. 68 of 2006, on 23.11.2007, the Vice-Chancellors of the first seven NLUs to be established, that is, NLSIU, NALSAR, NLIU, WBNUJS, NLUJ, HNLU and GNLU, signed a Memorandum of Understanding (‘MoU – 2007’) declaring the institution of a Common Law Admission Test (CLAT), the salient features of which are enumerated herein below: D (a) The Common Law Admission Test would be the single entrance examination for all the participating NLU’s and students would be admitted based on scores obtained in this test. (b) It would be held each year by different NLU’s (in rotation), based on their year of institution. (c) The overall supervision and policy making of CLAT would lie with the ‘Core-Committee’ (‘CLAT-CC’), comprising Vice- Chancellors of all participating universities (as its members). The CLAT-CC would be headed by the Vice-Chancellor of Organizing University as its Convenor. On 01.11.2014, a total of 16 NLUs entered into a fresh Memorandum of Understanding (‘2014 MoU’) in supercession of the previous MOU. Apart from the original seven parties to the 2007 MoU, this new MoU was signed by Respondent Numbers 10 to 18, namely RMLNLU, RGNUL, CNLU, NUALS, NLUO, NUSRL, NLUJAA, DSNLU and TNNLS. The Petitioner, despite earnest efforts, failed to obtain a copy of the aforesaid MoU – 2014 since the Organizing University for CLAT – 2015, i.e., RMNLU (Respondent No. 10 herein) refused to disclose the information as being exempt under Section 8(e) of the RTI Act. The 1st Edition of the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) was conducted by NLSIU on 11.05.2008. The test scores were used for admission to 11 National Law Schools, including four (4) non-participating universities, for the academic year 2008-09. Since then, CLAT has been conducted a total of eight (8) times for academic years from 2008-09 to 2015-16. Over the years, there has been a manifold increase in the number of candidates appearing for the admission test, reflecting the growing E importance of legal education and the prominence of law as a promising career option. Despite the growing popularity of CLAT, its planning and execution over the years has been marred with serious institutional lapses and inefficiencies, such as arbitrary and substandard question papers, incorrect questions and answers, questions that have no reasonable nexus to ones aptitude for the study of law, wrongful allotments of seats, unnecessary delays and an opaque administration that fails to comply with basic standards of transparency and the norms underlying the RTI Act. Further, the need for a robust and permanent institutional mechanism to conduct CLAT exams became evident from the fact that various High Courts across the Country had endorsed the directive of the Hon'ble High Court of Bombay in Subham Dutt v. Convener CLAT 2015 UG Exam.,W.P (Lodging) No. 1784 of 2015 to setup an expert panel/committee to study the various objections to the erroneous questions and answer keys in the CLAT 2015 paper. It may be noted that the lack of a permanent body was profoundly felt when the CLAT Convener for that year had repeatedly sought adjournments since he was not able to constitute an expert committee in time, and there was no grievance redressal mechanism under the present CLAT structure. As a result, therefore, the present Petitioner begs the intervention of this Hon’ble Court in the larger interest of student community and the future of legal education/profession. Apart from the issue of seriously defective Question Papers/Answers Keys, the CLAT exams also suffer from severe discrepancies in terms of allocation of seats, release of merit F lists, mal-administration and inefficient management and serious policy inconsistencies, each of which have been detailed in this petition. As such, the actions of the Respondents constitute a serious violation of the sacrosanct rights guaranteed under the Constitution of India to various prospective law students, including the right to guard against arbitrary actions of the state (under Article 14) and the right to education and other connected rights within the ambit of Article 21 of the Constitution. Therefore, on the basis of foregoing, the Petitioner seeks the immediate intervention of this Hon’ble Court for a number of reliefs including the constitution of an expert committee to study the working of CLAT and suggest immediate institutional reforms for conducting a better, non arbitrary, more competent and consistent Common Law Admission Test. LIST OF DATES 1984 The Legal Education Committee of the Bar Council of India (‘BCI’), Respondent No. 2 herein, recommends the establishment of specialized institutions to impart high quality legal education through an intensive 5 year integrated program (B.A., LL.B.) 1986 Pursuant thereto, in the year 1986, the State of Karnataka sets up India’s first autonomous institute of excellence for legal education and research, namely the National Law School of India University (‘NLSIU’), Respondent No. 3 G herein, under the Karnataka Act No. 22 of 1986. 1986 onwards A number of law universities on the lines of NLSIU are set up in various other States for promoting legal education and research. The NLUs primarily offer a 5 Year Integrated Graduate Program, conferring degrees that combine a basic bachelor’s degree (such as a B.A., B.Com., B.Sc. etc) with a gradudate law degree (LL.B.), resulting ultimately in a combined degree (B.A, LL.B; B.Sc. LL.B. etc). They also offer a multitude of specialized PostGraduate Programs conferring degrees equivalent to Masters in Law (LL.M.), Master of Philosophy (M.Phil.) and Doctor of Philosophy (Ph.D.). As on date, there are Eighteen (18) National Law Universities (NLU’s) across the country. 2007 Till 2007, each National Law University (NLU) conducted separate entrance examinations to select students for their various degree programs. However, this caused a great deal of hardship and inconvenience to law aspirants, as each candidate had to take more than 10 separate entrance examinations. The practice of having separate entrance examinations was strongly condemned by this Hon’ble Court in Varun Bhagat v Union of India and Others H (Supra) prompting the Ministry of Human Resource Development (‘MHRD’), the University Grants Commission (‘UGC’), the Bar Council of India (‘BCI’) and the Vice Chancellors of seven (7) NLUs (NLSIU, NALSAR, WBNUJS, NLIU, NLUJ, HNLU and GNLU) to formulate a more rational and student friendly method of selecting the most promising candidates with legal aptitude. A series of meetings and discussions resulted in an agreement amongst the NLUs to admit students on the basis of one common entrance examination conducted every year. 23.11.2007 Pursuant thereto, on 23.11.2007, the ViceChancellors of the abovementioned NLUs signed a Memorandum of Understanding (‘MoU – 2007’) declaring the institution of a Common Law Admission Test (CLAT). 2008-14 In each of these years CLAT is conducted by one of the participating NLUs. Each of these exams had serious and varied problems, which are detailed in the Writ Petition. 1.11.2014 On 01.11.2014, a total of 16 NLUs entered into a fresh Memorandum of Understanding (‘2014 MoU’) in supercession of the previous MOU. Apart from the original seven parties to the 2007 MoU, this new MoU was signed by Respondent Numbers 10 to 18, namely I RMLNLU, RGNUL, CNLU, NUALS, NLUO, NUSRL, NLUJAA, DSNLU and TNNLS. The Petitioner, despite earnest efforts, failed to obtain a copy of the aforesaid MoU – 2014 since the Organizing University for CLAT – 2015, i.e., RMNLU (Respondent No. 10 herein) refused to disclose the information as being exempted under Section 8(e) of the RTI Act. 2015 The 2015 CLAT is conducted by RMLNLU, and is again marred by huge number of problems. .08.2015 Hence the present Petition under Article 32 of the Constitution of India. 1 IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA CIVIL ORIGINAL JURISDICTION WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) No.____ OF 2015 UNDER ARTICLE 32 OF THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA IN THE MATTER OF Shamnad Basheer IDIA Charitable Trust, C/o. Spire, No. 45, 2nd Floor, Jubilee Building, Museum Road, Bangalore – 560 025, Karnataka Petitioner Versus 1. Union of India Through the Secretary, Ministry of Human Resource Development, Shashtri Bhawan, New Delhi – 110001 Contesting Respondent No. 1 2. Bar Council of India Through the Chairman, Bar Council of India 21, Rouse Avenue Institutional Area, Near Bal Bhawan, New Delhi – 110 002 Contesting Respondent No. 2 3. National Law School of India University, Through the Registrar, P.O. Bag 7201, Nagarbhavi, Bangalore - 560 072, Karnataka Contesting Respondent No. 3 4. NALSAR University of Law, Through the Registrar, Contact Information Post Box No.1, Justice City, Shameerpet, R.R. District, Hyderabad – 500101, Andhra Pradesh Contesting Respondent No. 4 5. National Law Institute University, Through the Registrar, Kerwa Dam Road, Bhopal - 462 044, Madhya Pradesh Contesting Respondent No. 5 6. West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences Through the Registrar, Dr. Ambedkar Bhavan 12, LB Block, Sector III, Salt Lake City Kolkata – 700098 National Law University Jodhpur, Through the Registrar, NH-65, Contesting Respondent No. 6 7. Contesting Respondent No. 7 2 Nagour Road, Mandore, Jodhpur – 342304, Rajasthan 8. Hidayatullah National Law University, Through the Registrar, Post-Uparwara Naya Raipur – 492002, Chattisgarh Contesting Respondent No. 8 9. Gujarat National Law University, Through the Registrar, Attalika Avenue, Knowledge Corridor, Koba, Gandhinagar – 382007, Gujarat Contesting Respondent No. 9 10. Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia National Law University, Through the Registrar, Sec- D1, LDA Colony, Kanpur Road Scheme Lucknow – 226012, Uttar Pradesh Contesting Respondent No. 10 11. Rajiv Gandhi National University of Law, Punjab, Through the Registrar, Sidhuwal - Bhadson Road Patiala 147004 Punjab Contesting Respondent No. 11 12. Chanakya National Law University Through the Registrar, Nyaya Nagar, Mithapur, Patna-800001, Bihar Contesting Respondent No. 12 13. National University of Advanced Legal Studies Through the Registrar, Medical College - NAD Rd, HMT Colony, North Kalamassery, Kalamassery, Kochi – 683503, Kerala Contesting Respondent No. 13 14. National Law University, Odisha Through the Registrar Kathajodi Campus, SEC - 13, CDA, Cuttack – 753015, Odisha Contesting Respondent No. 14 15. National University of Study and Research in Law, Ranchi Through the Registrar, AT- Nagri, PO- Bukru Kanke Pithoria Road, Kanke, Ranchi – 834006, Jharkhand Contesting Respondent No. 15 16. National Law University, Assam Through the Registrar, NEJOTI Building, B.K. Kakati Road, Bholanath Mandir Path, Near State Bank of India (South Guwahati Branch), Ulubari, Guwahati–781007, Assam Contesting Respondent No. 16 3 17. Damodaram Sanjivayya National Law University Through the Registrar, Plot No. 116, Sector XI, M.V.P. Colony, Visakhapatnam – 530017, Andhra Pradesh Contesting Respondent No. 17 18. Tamil Nadu National Law School, Through the Registrar, Dindigul Main Road, Navalurkuttappattu, Srirangam Taluk, Tiruchirappalli - 620 009, Tamil Nadu Contesting Respondent No. 18 A PETITION UNDER ARTICLE 32 OF THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA FILED IN PUBLIC INTEREST SEEKING A WRIT OF MANDAMUS OR ANY OTHER APPROPRIATE WRIT, ORDER OR DIRECTION TO APPOINT AN EXPERT COMMITTEE TO REVIEW THE WORKING OF THE COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST (CLAT) AND SUGGEST INSTITUTIONAL REFORMS AND/OR WRIT OF MANDAMUS OR ANY OTHER APPROPRIATE WRIT, ORDER OR DIRECTION TO THE RESPONDENTS TO CONSTITUTE AN INDEPENDENT PROFESSIONAL PERMANENT BODY TASKED WITH CONDUCTING COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST ON AN ANNUAL BASIS ON BEHALF OF THE RESPONDENT UNIVERSITIES. To, Hon’ble the Chief Justice of India and His Companion Judges of the Supreme Court of India The humble petition of the Petitioner above-named MOST RESPECTFULLY SHOWETH: 1. The present Writ Petition filed in public interest seeks the immediate intervention of this Hon’ble Court against the inconsistent, negligent, implementation of the sub-standard Common Law and inefficient Admission Test (hereinafter the ‘CLAT’) held, by Respondent Nos. 3 to 18, every year for the purpose of admissions to Under Graduate (‘UG’) and Post-Graduate (‘PG’) programs in the discipline of law offered at premier national law schools in India. 1A. The Petitioner is approaching this Hon’ble Court under Article 32 because the above mode and manner of conduct of CLAT 4 is causing a repeated violation of the fundamental right of thousands of prospective law students to guard against arbitrary action under Article 14 and the right to education and connected fundamental rights under Article 21 of the Constitution. As the reliefs being sought are against a large number of National Law Universities located across many different states in India, the Petitioner can seek the said reliefs only before this Hon’ble Court and individual High Courts are not be in a position to grant these reliefs. The details of the Petitioner filing the present Public Interest Litigation are as follows: a. The Petitioner is Shamnad Basheer having his address at IDIA Charitable Trust, C/o. Spire, No. 45, 2 nd Floor, Jubilee Building, Museum Road, Bangalore – 560 025. The e-mail address shamnad@gmail.com of and the the Petitioner phone number is is 9818825148. The Petitioner is a citizen of India and a reputed legal scholar with over fifteen years of experience, particularly in the areas of legal education and intellectual property laws. Till recently, he served as the Ministry of Human Resource Development Chair Professor in Intellectual Property Law at the West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata (‘NUJS’), Respondent No. 6 herein, from 200809 to 2013-14. b. The facts that lead to the cause of action is the annual conduct of the CLAT examination, the latest being the 5 exam conducted by Respondent Number 10 in early May, 2015. c. The conduct of CLAT over the last several years has been continously riddled with arbitrariness, opacity and inpetitude, thereby affecting the education and career prospects of thousands of students, who participate in these exams every year, whose interest the Petitioner seeks to represent in the present Public Interest Litigation. d. The Petitioner has no personal interest whatsoever in filing the present petition. e. The Petitioner is not involved in any civil, criminal, revenue or other litigation that has any legal nexus with the issues involved in the present Public Interest Litigation. f. The Petitioner has not approached any of the respondent authorities seeking the reliefs sought in this writ petition. This is because none of the respondent authorities are individually in a position to grant these reliefs and no collective formal organisation of the Respondent universities exists that can grant these reliefs. However, on 01.11.2014, a total of 16 NLUs entered into a fresh Memorandum of Understanding (‘2014 MoU’) in supersession of the previous MOU. Apart from the original seven parties to the 2007 MoU, this new MoU was signed by Respondent Numbers 10 to 18, namely RMLNLU, RGNUL, CNLU, NUALS, NLUO, NUSRL, NLUJAA, DSNLU and TNNLS. The Petitioner, despite earnest efforts, 6 failed to obtain a copy of the aforesaid MoU – 2014 since the Organizing University for CLAT – 2015, i.e., RMNLU (Respondent No. 10 herein) refused to disclose the information as being exempted under Section 8(e) of the RTI Act. Thus, the Respondents are refusing to even disclose information in respect of the basis for conduct of the exam, let alone consider any suggestions from the Petitioner, even if he had made any suggestions. 2. The timely intervention of this Hon’ble Court in the year 2007, in a Public Interest Litigation, Varun Bhagat v. Union of India & Others W.P. (C) No. 68 of 2006, facilitated the institution of the CLAT, a single-window entrance test for admissions to most of the National Law Universities (hereinafter the ‘NLUs’) and law colleges across the country. The proceedings before this Hon’ble Court ensured that the Respondent-NLUs undertook to hold CLAT, every year, for admissions to various programs. While the institution of CLAT has immensely benefitted law aspirants who were earlier forced to take separate entrance test for each of the NLUs, the planning, design and execution of the entrance test has unfortunately inconsistent, been non-transparent marred and with irrational, inefficient practices. Almost all the CLAT exams have been characterised by egregious lapses over the years, including wrong questions, wrong answers, wrongful allotments, paper leakage and a host of other errors that have jeopardised the future of several thousand students. The present Petition, therefore, seeks the immediate intervention of this Hon’ble Court to 7 direct the Respondents to instill a robust, structured and institutionalized mechanism for conducting CLAT to avoid uncertainties and reduce the scope for errors and lapses. It may be noted that the questions carry negative marks and the improper evaluation of a single question can lead to a change of several hundred ranks, thereby moving them between colleges or out of the merit list altogether. 3. It is respectfully submitted that the Petitioner has not approached the Respondents for any other alternative remedy and no other petitions have been filed by the petitioner before this Hon’ble Court or any other court. 4. The present Petition is based on authentic information and public documents sourced under the Right to Information Act, 2005 (‘RTI Act’), authentic news reports, opinions and writings of eminent experts and scholars on legal education and other publicly available information. I. PETITIONER 5. The Petitioner is a citizen of India and a reputed legal scholar with over fifteen years of experience, particularly in the areas of legal education and intellectual property laws. Till last year, he served as the Ministry of Human Resource Development Chair Professor in Intellectual Property Law at the West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata (‘NUJS’), Respondent No. 6 herein, from 2008-09 to 2013-14. He began his academic career in the US, where he was appointed the Frank H Marks Visiting Associate Professor of IP Law at the George Washington University Law School in Washington DC from 2006-2007. 8 6. The Petitioner graduated from the National Law School of India University, Bangalore (‘NLSIU’), Respondent No. 3 herein, and did his Masters in Law (BCL), MPhil and DPhil from the University of Oxford as a Wellcome Trust Scholar. He is a recipient of the prestigious Infosys Foundation Prize for the year 2014 awarded by a jury headed by Nobel Laureate, Prof Amartya Sen, for his contributions to legal theory and practice, particularly in the area of legal education, access to law and justice, and intellectual property rights. The award citation by the jury commends his pioneering contributions in fostering a wider public engagement with the law (particularly intellectual property law) and in aiding access to law and legal education for the underprivileged. 7. In 2010, Petitioner founded IDIA (‘Increasing Diversity by Increasing Access to Legal Education’), a non-profit pan India movement to train underprivileged students and help transform them to leading lawyers and community advocates. IDIA is premised on the notion that access to premier legal education empowers marginalized communities and helps them help themselves. The project is run on the backbone of highly passionate student volunteers from various law schools, who travel across the length and breadth of India to identify marginalised students with an aptitude for the study of law. The selected students are rigorously trained to appear for the leading law entrance examination, namely CLAT and All India Law Entrance Test (‘AILET’). IDIA further arranges for scholarships and adequate mentorship schemes to help 9 candidates blossom to their full potential and take their rightful places as leading lawyers and community advocates. 8. In the last five years, approximately 70 students trained by IDIA have secured admission to various law schools in India, and of this number, around 40 gained admission to the leading NLUs. They reflect a truly diverse mix, comprising candidates from various backgrounds (children of farmers, stone quarry workers, truck drivers and clerks) and hailing from various states. 9. In 2011, the Petitioner founded P-PIL (“Promoting Public Interest Lawyering”), an informal coalition of law students, law teachers and lawyers to synergistically work towards shared public interest goals by filing Public Interest petitions and the like. 10. The Petitioner has proactively intervened and assisted the courts in matters of significant public importance. Notably, given the Petitioner’s background and expertise intellectual property law, the Petitioner assisted the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Novartis v. Union of India [(2013) 6 SCC 1] as an intervener-cum-amicus in the interpretation of Indian patent law. The scholarly writings of the Petitioner were also relied on by the Controller General of Patents in its decision [C.L. No. 1 of 2011 dated 09.03.2012] to grant India’s first ever compulsory licence in the post TRIPS era. Most recently, the Supreme Court upheld a constitutionality challenge by the Petitioner against the Intellectual Property 10 Appellate Board (IPAB), India’s specialist IP tribunal, wherein the Petitioner had questioned the eligibility criteria of decision makers on the tribunal and the fact that the selection panels were predominated with members of the Executive. The Madras High court ruled in favour of the Petitioner and the Supreme Court declined to interfere with the order. A comprehensive list of Petitioner’s public-spirited activities and contributions to law and access to legal education, as on 27.07.2015 dated Nil is annexed herewith as Annexure P/1 [Pages ____ to ____] II. 11. RESPONDENTS The Respondents herein are ‘state’ for the purposes of Article 12 of the Constitution and public authorities against whom a Petition under Article 32 is maintainable. The details of the Respondents are as follows: i. Respondent No. 1 is the Secretary to the Union of India, Ministry of Human Resource Development. ii. Respondent No. 2 is the Chairman to the Bar Council of India, a statutory body established under the Advocates Act, 1961. iii. Respondent Registrar of the National Law Nos. 3 School is of the India University, Bangalore. iv. Respondent No. 4 is the Registrar of the NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad. 11 v. Respondent No. 5 is the Registrar of the National Law Institute University, Bhopal. vi. Respondent No. 6 is the Registrar of the West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata vii. Respondent No. 7 is the Registrar of the National Law University Jodhpur. viii. Respondent No. 8 is the Registrar of the Hidayatullah National Law University, Raipur. ix. Respondent No. 9 is the Registrar of the Gujarat National Law University, Gandhinagar. x. Respondent No. 10 is the Registrar of the Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia National Law University, Lucknow. xi. Respondent No. 11 is the Registrar of the Rajiv Gandhi National University of Law, Patiala. xii. Respondent No. 12 is the Registrar of the Chanakya National Law University, Patna. xiii. Respondent No. 13 is the Registrar of the National University of Advanced Legal Studies, Kochi. xiv. Respondent No. 14 is the Registrar of the National Law University, Odisha, Cuttack. 12 xv. Respondent No. 15 is the Registrar of the National University of Study & Research in Law, Ranchi. xvi. Respondent No. 16 is the Registrar of the National Law School & Judicial Academy, Assam, Guwahati. xvii. Respondent No. 17 is the Registrar of the Damodaram Sanjivayya National Law University, Vishakhapatnam. xviii. Respondent No. 18 is the Registrar of the Tamil Nadu National Law School, Tiruchirapalli. Respondent Nos. 3 to 18 are the representatives of the constituent Universities that conduct the CLAT, each of which are statutory in nature and hence fall within the definition under Article 12. III. 12. BACKGROUND In 1984, the Legal Education Committee of the Bar Council of India (‘BCI’), Respondent No. 2 herein, recommended the establishment of specialized institutions to impart high quality legal education through an intensive 5 year integrated program (B.A., LL.B.) for UG students. The underlying idea was to create a new breed of institutions that would revitalize legal education and attract more students to the legal profession. 13. Pursuant thereto, in the year 1986, the State of Karnataka setup India’s first autonomous institute of excellence for legal education and research, namely the National Law 13 School of India University (‘NLSIU’), Respondent No. 3 herein, under the Karnataka Act No. 22 of 1986. This was supported by the Judiciary, the Bar Council of India, the Karnataka Bar Council, and the Bangalore University. The NLSIU admitted students on an All-India basis through an entrance examination designed to attract students with serious aptitude for the study of law. 14. Since then, a number of similar universities have been set up in various other States for promoting legal education and research. The NLUs primarily offer a 5 Year Integrated Graduate Program, conferring degrees that combine a basic bachelor’s degree (such as a B.A., B.Com., B.Sc.) with a gradudate law degree (LL.B.), resulting ultimately in a combined degree (B.A, LL.B; B.Sc. LL.B.). They also offer a multitude of specialized Post-Graduate Programs conferring degrees equivalent to Masters in Law (LL.M.), Master of Philosophy (M.Phil.) and Doctor of Philosophy (Ph.D.). As on date, there are Eighteen (18) National Law Universities (NLU’s) across the country. The following table provides the list of NLUs along with their location and the year of establishment: 1. National Law School of India 2. University (NLSIU) National Academy of Legal Bangalore 198 Hyderabad 6 199 Study & Research (NALSAR) 3. University of Law National Law Institute 4. University (NLIU) The W.B. National University of Juridical Sciences (WBNUJS) 8 Bhopal 199 Kolkata 7 199 9 14 5. National Law University, Jodhpur 200 6. Jodhpur (NLUJ) Hidayatullah National Law Raipur 1 200 7. University (HNLU) Gujarat National Law Gandhinagar 3 200 8. University (GNLU) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia Lucknow 4 200 National Law University 15. 9. (RMLNLU) Rajiv Gandhi National 5 Patiala 200 10 University of Law (RGNUL) Chanakya National Law Patna 6 200 . 11 University (CNLU) National University of Kochi 6 200 . Advanced Legal Studies 12 (NUALS) National Law University, New Delhi 200 . 13 Delhi (NLUD) National Law University, Cuttack 8 200 . 14 Odissa (NLUO) National University of Study Ranchi 9 201 . 15 & Research in Law (NUSRL) National Law School & Guwahati 0 201 . Judicial Academy, Assam 16 (NLUJAA) Damodaram Sanjivayya Vishakhapatna . National Law University m 17 (DSNLU) The Tamil Nadu National Law Tiruchirappalli 201 . 18 School (TNNLS) Maharashtra National Law Mumbai 3 201 . Till University 2007, each NLU 5 0 conducted 200 8 separate 4 entrance examinations to select students for their various degree programs. However, this caused a great deal of hardship and inconvenience to law aspirants, as each candidate had 15 to take more than 10 separate entrance examinations. The hardship on students was compounded due to: (a) the varied syllabi and evaluation methods adopted by (b) each NLU; the proximity of (and at times identical) test dates of (c) various entrance tests; the logistical inconvenience caused to students (especially those belonging to small towns and interior parts of India who had to travel to multiple test centres (d) in the urban areas); and the financial burden upon parents who were forced to pay the exorbitant fees for each entrance test. The practice of having separate entrance examinations was strongly condemned by this Hon’ble Court in Varun Bhagat v Union of India and Others prompting the Ministry of Human Resource Development (‘MHRD’), the University Grants Commission (‘UGC’), the Bar Council of India (‘BCI’) and the Vice Chancellors of seven (7) NLUs (NLSIU, NALSAR, WBNUJS, NLIU, NLUJ, HNLU and GNLU) to formulate a more rational and student friendly method of selecting the most promising candidates with legal aptitude. A series of meetings and discussions resulted in an agreement amongst the NLUs to admit students on the basis of one common entrance examination conducted every year. In view of these developments, this Hon’ble Court disposed off the matter. 16. Pursuant thereto, on 23.11.2007, the Vice-Chancellors of the above mentioned NLUs signed a Memorandum of Understanding (‘MoU – 2007’) declaring the institution of a 16 Common Law Admission Test (CLAT), the salient features of which are enumerated herein below: (b) The Common Law Admission Test was to be the single entrance examination for all the participating NLU’s and students would be admitted based on scores (c) obtained in this test. It was to be held each year by different NLU’s (in (d) rotation), based on their year of institution. The overall supervision and policy making of CLAT would lie with the ‘Core-Committee’ (‘CLAT-CC’), comprising the Vice-Chancellors of all participating universities (as its members). The CLAT-CC would be headed by the Vice-Chancellor of the Organizing (e) University as its Convenor. The planning, preparation and execution of the entrance test would lie with the ‘Implementation Committee’ (‘CLAT-IC’) comprising the Vice-Chancellor of the Organizing University as the Chairperson and one (f) member from each participating university (nominated by their respective Vice-Chancellors). The proceeds received from the application fees collected from candidates would following manner: i. be allocated in the The Organizing University would retain 50% of the proceeds to meet the ii. (g) expenditure for conducting the examination; and The remaining 50% would be shared amongst the participating NLUs. The scores obtained through the Common Law Admission Test could be provided to non-participating universities and colleges upon the payment of a fee. 17 A True copy of the Memorandum of Understanding entered into by 7 National Law Schools, dated 23.11.2007, is annexed herewith as Annexure P/2 [Pages ____ to ____]. 17. On 01.11.2014, a total of 16 NLUs entered into a fresh Memorandum of Understanding (‘MoU - 2014’) in supercession of the previous MOU. Apart from the original seven parties to the 2007 MoU, this new MoU was signed by Respondent Numbers 10 to 18, namely RMLNLU, RGNUL, CNLU, NUALS, NLUO, NUSRL, NLUJAA, DSNLU and TNNLS. At the inception, it is submitted the contents of the MoUs (i.e., 2007 and 2014) have not been published by the Respondents suo motu, as required under Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 (‘RTI Act’). The Petitioner through his associate, requested Respondent No. 10, the Organizing University of CLAT – 2015 to provide copies of the said MoUs. Shockingly, however, Respondent No. 10 rejected the application for information as being exempted under Section 8(e) of the RTI Act. The Petitioner later learnt that Respondent No. 8 had in fact provided the true copy of MoU – 2007 (annexed herein) under the RTI Act a few years ago, when it was the organizing University for CLAT. This more than amply demonstrates that the CLAT participating Universities lack any credible co-ordination when it comes to framing CLAT policy, often resulting in ad-hoc, arbitrary, inconsistent, and opaque policies, a point that will be elaborated further in this petition. A True copy of news report titled ‘Multi-crore CLAT agreement with 13 other NLUs is so secret it ’s exempt from RTI, claims RMLNLU’, dated 06.06.2015, published by Legally 18 India, is annexed herewith as Annexure P/3 [Pages ____ to ____] 18. An application under the RTI Act was made to the PIO of the CLAT Convener for the year 2015, calling for certain public documents inter alia, Memorandum of Understanding signed on 10.05.2015 by the Respondent Universities. A True copy of the RTI Application dated 10.06.2015 is annexed herewith as Annexure P/4. [Pages ____ to ____] 19. Pursuant to the Application, the Respondent No. 10 herein replied stated that the said information cannot be provided. A true copy of the Reply dated 1.07.2015 from Respondent No. 10 is annexed herewith as Annexure P/5. [Pages ____ to ____] 20. The 1st Edition of the entrance test was conducted by NLSIU on 11.05.2008. The test scores were used for admission to 11 NLUs, including four (4) non-participating universities, for the academic year 2008-09. Since then, CLAT has been conducted a total of eight (8) times for academic years from 2008-16. Over the years, there has been a manifold increase in the number of candidates appearing for the admission test, reflecting the growing importance of legal education and the prominence of law as a promising career option. The below table encapsulates the growth in the number of NLU’s participating in CLAT over the years and the rapid increase in the number of students who write the CLAT exam each year. S.No YEAR PARTICIPATING TOTAL . 1. 2008 UNIVERSITIES 8 CANDIDATES 10,773 19 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 21. 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 11 11 11 14 14 15 16 13,588 16,350 21,353 23,881 27,627 29,628 37,358 It is submitted that the CLAT exam has become so important that even non-participating institutions and Public Sector Undertakings (‘PSUs’) have begun adopting CLAT scores for graduate admissions and job recruitments. As listed below, as many as thirteen (13) law colleges have entered into agreements with the CLAT Committee to avail CLAT scores and ranks this year: i. Lloyd Law College, Greator Noida ii. SRM University, Kattankulathur, Tamil Nadu iii. N. A. Global Law School, Bangalore iv. Galgotias University, Greator Noida v. Institute of Law, Nirma University, Ahmedabad vi. Alliance University, Karnataka vii. SRM University, Sonepat, Haryana viii. Altius Institute of Universal Studies, Indore ix. Manipal University, Jaipur x. ITM University, Gurgaon xi. IAMR Law College, Ghaziabad xii. Raffles University, Rajasthan xiii. SGT University, Gurgaon 22. Similarly, the following PSU’s conducted recruitments based on CLAT scores this year: 23. i. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited, Dehradun ii. THDC India Limited, Rishikesh iii. Power Grid Corporation of India Limited, Gurgaon As noted earlier, 50% of the revenues collected through application forms and other sources are retained by the Organizing University, and the remaining 50% is shared 20 equally amongst participating NLUs. The following table provides the prescribed fees for obtaining the CLAT application since 2008: S.No YEAR General 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 Application Fees Reserved Category Category Rs. 2000 Rs. 2500 Rs. 2500 Rs. 2500 Rs. 3000 Rs. 3000 Rs. 4000 Rs. 4000 Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs. 1500 2000 2000 2000 2500 2500 3500 3500 As per estimates based on information obtained through RTI’s filed with the Gujarat National Law University (GNLU) (Respondent No. 9), the total revenues from the sales of all CLAT application forms was around Rs. 2.09 crore in 2008, Rs. 3.6 crore in 2009, and Rs. 4.5 crore in 2010. It is also estimated that CLAT revenues for 2015 are approximately Rs. 16.2 crores. It is to be noted that this excludes the additional sums procured through the sales of CLAT rank-lists to the nine non-national law schools that use CLAT scores for admitting students. A true typed copy of an Article published in Mint and Legally India, dated 16.06.2015, containing said estimate, is annexed herewith as Annexure P/6 [Pages ____ to ____]. It is submitted that if one were to go by this estimate, RMNLU (Respondent No. 8) earned around Rs 8 crores as the CLAT Organising University for 2015-16. 21 24. Despite the growing popularity of CLAT, its planning and execution over the years has been marred with serious institutional lapses and inefficiencies, such as arbitrary and sub-standard question papers, incorrect questions and answers, questions that have no reasonable nexus to a candidates’ aptitude for the study of law, wrongful allotments of seats, unnecessary delays and an opaque administration that fails to comply with basic standards of transparency and the norms underlying the RTI Act. As a result, therefore, the present Petitioner begs the intervention of this Hon’ble Court in the larger interests of student community and the future of legal education in India. ERRORS IN CLAT PAPERS 25. Apart from the CLAT 2015 paper, every other CLAT paper in the past has been riddled with various errors, including wrong questions, answer keys, widespread plagiarism and several instances of incompetence in the administration/conduct of the exam such as release of merit lists and allotment of seats etc. The Petitioner’s research associates, mainly students from leading law schools across the country, have perused past years CLAT papers, taken feedbacks from CLAT candidates and have made a compilation of errors that have crept into the CLAT papers over the years. Below is a summary of the most egregious errors observed till date. Erroneous Questions and Answers: 26. In the most recent CLAT 2015 exam conducted by RMNLU (Respondent No. 10), experts estimate that more than 30 questions in the test paper were faulty in that questions 22 were either framed incorrectly, were arbitrary and didn't make sense, the answer keys were wrong or the questions had more than one correct answer. 27. In the CLAT 2015 paper, it was reported that out of 200 questions bearing 1 mark each, the total number of incorrect questions spanned as many as 40 questions, the equivalent to 20% of the total marks. As such, this casts serious aspersions on the integrity and quality of CLAT, allegedly a reputed national entrance examination. 28. Owing to a significant number of student complaints, the CLAT Implementation Committee (IC) formed an “expert” committee to review the questions and answer keys. The first expert committee admitted to only three errors in the UG paper, awarding two marks to all candidates for typographical errors in Questions Numbers 35 and 182, and declaring two correct options for Question Number 186. Surprisingly however, a second expert committee that was constituted later found that there were no errors at all in the paper. A review of some of these questions will highlight the sheer travesty of justice in having an expert committee defend an otherwise indefensible paper, which has harmed the futures of thousands of students. A few obvious errors in the 2015 CLAT paper have been illustrated herein below: i. DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the question, there are five sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words 'phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted 23 word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one. Question Id : 1703 Regrettably [A] / Regretfully [B] I have to decline your invitation. The critics censored [A] / censured [B] the new movie because of its social unacceptability. He was besides [A] / beside [B] himself with range when I told him what I had done. Anita had a beautiful broach [A]/brooch [B] on the lapel of her jacket. He has the same capacity as an adult to consent [A] / assent [B] to surgical treatment. Options : 1. ✓(A): BABBA 2. x (B): BBAAB 3. x (C): ABBBA 4. x (D): BBAAB The answer key to this question suggests that the word ‘censored’ is the correct fit for the second sentence in this question. However, as evident from the ordinary meaning of the words “censor” and “censure”, this answer key is clearly wrong. Critics are never in a position to “censor” a movie; a task normally undertaken by state regulatory authorities. Rather, what a critic does often is to “censure” a movie that they don’t particularly like. ii. Question Id : 1766 24 Which among the following is the world's largest ecommerce company? Options : 1. ✓(A): Amazon 2. x(B): eBay 3. x(C): Alibaba 4. x(D): Flipkart This question was disputed (in the writ petitions mentioned above) on the grounds of ambiguity, since both Amazon and Alibaba could be interpreted to be the world’s largest e-commerce company, depending on the measure of “largeness” that one was using. Amazon could be said to the largest on the basis of total revenue, while Alibaba would count as the “largest”, based on market capital. The Expert Committee however defends the answer key (A) by stating that the question ought to have been answered on the basis of “popular perception of general masses” and not on “specific data-wise details”. Demanding that candidates seeking to enter the hallowed halls of legal learning base their answer on popular perception, as opposed to scientific data, is preposterous to say the least. At the very least, candidates that marked either of these as the correct answer ought to have been awarded marks. iii. Question Id : 1825 25 PRINCIPLE: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests. FACT: Mr. X who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he is of unsound mind. Y came to know about this fact afterwards and now wants to file a suit against Mr. X. Options : 1. x(A): Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he entered into contract. 2. x(B): Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound mind at the time of contract. 3. ✓(C): Mr. X can enter into a contract but the burden is on Mr. X to prove that he was of unsound mind at the time of contract. 4. x(D): None of the above. Firtly, it is submitted that the question itself is faulty, in that the principle is inadequate and does not spell out the legal validity or otherwise of such a contract or the consequences of a contract entered into by a person of unsound mind. Rather, the stated principle merely recounts the conditions under which a person could be said to be of sound mind for the purpose of entering into a contract. Even assuming that candidates are to make sense of this faulty question and answer it as best as possible, 26 inadequacies notwithstanding, it is not clear as to what would count as the unequivocally right option. One could argue that, based only on the incomplete legal principle advanced, any of the first 3 options would be equally plausible. In order to justify the stated answer key as the right one, the expert committee makes a reference to section 12 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, as well as specific pages of the 1999 edition of Avtar Singh’s treatise on the Law of Contract. This reliance on a specialized legal text to justify an answer is thoroughly wrong on more than one count. For one, it goes against the syllabus/outline for the legal aptitude section in the CLAT brochure, which clearly stated that: “Questions will be framed with the help of legal propositions (described in the paper), and a set of facts to which the said proposition has to be applied.” In other words, the syllabus makes clear that candidates are to apply only the stated legal principle/proposition to the set of facts. However, the incomplete nature of the legal principle meant that the set of facts admitted to more than one correct answer on an application of that principle. Secondly and more egregiously, this reasoning by the CLAT expert committee means that candidates are expected to come armed with prior extensive knowledge of the law. 27 iv. Question Id : 1732 DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION: In the question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by a pair of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair. Question Number : 25 Question Id : 1733 Dulcet : Raucous Options : 1. x(A): Sweet : Song 2. ✓(B): Crazy : Insane 3. x(C): Palliative : Exacerbating 4. x(D): Theory : Practical As evident , the ordinary meaning of the terms “dulcet” (meaning sweet sounding or melodious) indicates that it is an antonym of the term “raucous” (which essentially means disturbingly harsh or loud noise). Therefore the correct answer ought to have been “Palliatiave: Exacerbating” (Option C above), which is the closest pair of antonyms in the listed options. The expert committee however defends the answer key (B) by offering what can only be described as tortuous logic, stating in particular that the candidates are “expected to feel the pulse” of the question. They further state that: “Sweetness may lead to “over-indulgence or engagement in situation/or in a given thing”. They liken this to “crazy” where “a person goes wide and crazy when one is over occupied by a sense of indulgence/engagement in any given situation/affair”. 28 Similarly, they draw an analogy between “raucous” and “insane”. A raucous situation is understood as one leading to noise/disturbance and also violent behavior. “Insane” is also described as leading to similar situations. While ‘dulcet’ may be used ironically in certain contexts, it is largely used to mean a sweet or soothing tone/sound. All of the dictionaries list the synonyms of dulcet as sweetsounding and melodious . As such, it is extremely difficult to see the logic of the expert committees long winded explanation. The “expert” committee also misunderstands the nature of the logical relation sought to be drawn out by the question. As per the instructions that precede the question, a candidate is to examine the relationship between dulcet and raucous. And then identify that option (from the list of answers) that comes closest in relationship to “dulcet:raucous”. The expert committee however begins by examining the relationship between “dulcet” and “crazy”, and then that between “raucous” and “insane” to demonstrate that they are essentially similar pairs. This is utterly fallacious and wrong. 29. Apart from errors in the UG paper outlined above, there were several incorrect questions in the Post-graduate admission test paper (‘PG test’) as well. Subsequently, the Expert Committee formed by the CLAT Implementation Committee to look into the matter admitted to errors in as many as six questions. The answer key, and rank list were consequently 29 revised. However, apart from these six questions, there are still many other incorrect questions that were not corrected by the Expert Committee. An aggrieved candidate filed a petition before the Chhattisgarh High Court, which will be detailed below. Some of these incorrect questions have been reproduced below: i. Question Id : 277 Assertion (A): – An accused person cannot be compelled Reason (R): to be – An witness accused against person himself. cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression. Options: (A): Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A (According to official answer key, this is the correct answer) (B): Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A (C): A is true but R is false (D): A is false but R is true It is submitted that the given answer to this question is incorrect. In The State Of Bombay vs Kathi Kalu Oghad And Others, 1961 AIR SC 1808, a 11-judge bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court categorically ruled that the expression ‘to be a witness’” did not include the “(g)iving thumb impressions or impressions of foot or palm or fingers or specimen writings or showing parts of the body by way of identification”. Consequently, the court held that “there was no infringement of Art. 20(3) of the Constitution in compelling an accused person to give his specimen handwriting or signature, or impressions of his thumb, fingers, palm or foot to the 30 investigating officer or under orders of a court for the purposes of comparison.” Given that this Supreme Court ruling now constitutes the law of the land, the answer cited by the CLAT Organisers (A) is clearly wrong. The correct answer has to be (C). ii. Question Id : 279 Assertion (A): The President of India can issue a proclamation of emergency under Article 352(1) of Constitution on the advice of the Prime Minister. Reason (R): Where a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the President may suspend the operation of all fundamental rights except Articles 20 & 21 of Constitution. Options: (A) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A (B) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A (C) A is true but R is false (D) A is false but R is true B has been shown to be the correct answer in the answer key. A careful reading of Article 352(3) of the Constitution of India would however indicate that this answer key is blatantly wrong. Under the said provision, a proclamation of emergency can be made by the President under Article 352(1) only on the advice “of the Union Cabinet (that is to say, the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank under Article 75) ”. Therefore the President cannot issue a proclamation of emergency on the advise of the Prime Minister alone, but has to do so on the advice of the Cabinet as a whole. The correct answer ought to have been (D). 31 30. In the 2014 CLAT paper set by GNLU (Respondent No. 9), the Model Answer Key released by the University contained several incorrect answers, leading to severe student agitation. Subsequently, the University admitted that the answers to three questions (Nos. 12, 76 and 145) were wrong. It also admitted that two questions (Nos. 41 and 131) had more than one correct answer. It therefore awarded marks to all candidates who had opted for either of the correct options. 31. In the 2012 CLAT paper set by NLU Jodhpur (Respondent No. 7), as many as 7 questions were reportedly incorrect. On the representation of a student petitioner, the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi, in its judgment in the case of Archit Krishna vs National Law University and Anr., W.P. (C) 4147/2012, declared an answer as incorrect, and decided that the Petitioner deserved one mark higher than the score he had been given on the test by National Law University Jodhpur, which was the CLAT Organizing University for that year. Questions that tested for prior legal knowledge: 32. In the 2009 paper set for UG candidates by NALSAR (Respondent No. 4), the ‘Legal Aptitude’ section contained questions that tested candidates for prior legal knowledge. A few examples are highlighted under: i. The Supreme Court held that evidence can be recorded by video-conferencing in the case ... (a) State of Maharashtra v. Prafull B. Desai (b) Paramjit Kaur v. State of Punjab 32 (c) Pappu Yadav v. State of Bihar (d) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab ii. The law relating to prisoners of war has been codified by (a) Geneva Convention (b) Vienna Convention (c) Paris Convention (d) None of the above iii. Public holidays are declared under (a) Criminal Procedure Code (b) Civil Procedure Code (c) Constitution of India (d) Negotiable Instruments Act 33. It is submitted that these questions hardly test for legal aptitude. Rather they demand an extensive knowledge of arcane legal facts and principles prior to a student entering a law University. It is submitted that there is no credible relation between such questions that require the memorisation of copious amounts of legal principles to one’s potential or apttiude for the study of law. Such legal principles cannot be expected to be known by the ordinary law aspirant, but are more likely to be known by those that have prior relations with the legal profession or legal education in some way. Irrational/Arbitrary Questions 34. In the 2009 CLAT paper framed by NALSAR (Respondent No. 4), the Logical Reasoning Section comprised the following questions: Instructions : (questions 156-165): Each question below consists of one Assertion (A) and one Reason (R). Examine 33 them and shade the correct answers using the Code below on the OMR Answer Sheet. Code: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 159. A: Soils in some parts of Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan are saline. R: Evaporation exceeds precipitation. 160. A: The monsoons arrive suddenly in India in June. R: The monsoonal low pressure trough is well-developed over India. 165. A: The Sea remains free from ice from British Columbia to Bering Sea. R: Air moving off the comparatively warm waters of North Pacific Drift gives the coastal areas of British Columbia a warmer climate. 32. It is difficult to appreciate as to why an exam meant to test for one’s potential/aptitude to study law ought to require knowledge of specialised geography i.e. the relation between soil salinity and precipitation, the monsoon arrival and monsoon low pressure trough, and climate and ice in seas. Further, these questions appear in a section meant to 34 test one’s questions logical reasoning prowess. require in-depth specialist However, these knowledge of geography. D. Plagiarized Questions 33. Apart from various errors in the questions/answers as outlined above in the 2015 CLAT paper by RMLNLU (Respondent No. 10), the paper setters have also been accused of extensive plagiarism. Specifically, it has been alleged that as many as 135 out of the 150 questions in the Elementary General Mathematics Knowledge and (Numerical Current Ability), Affairs, and English, Logical Reasoning sections of the UG test paper, or 67.5%, that is, more than two-thirds of the total questions have been plagiarized from different sources. Out of these, 27 questions in the General Knowledge and Current Affairs section were shockingly found to have been copied from a single source, www.gktoday.com, a Jaipur-based website. These 27 questions, amounting to 13.5% of the total marks of the paper, were copied from a question bank published by the said website in the months of February and March 2015. 34. Further, an article in leading IP Law blog SpicyIP, opined that owing to such extensive plagiarism, the CLAT paper setters may even be guilty of copyright infringement. 35. In the CLAT – 2009 paper (organized by NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad), As many as 48 out of the 50 questions in the Legal Aptitude section of this test paper, or 27% of the entire test paper, were directly copied from the Legal Aptitude section of the popular CLAT Preparation Guide Book published by LexisNexis, 35 titled “The Ultimate Guide to LLB Entrance Examination” (200809), authored by MA Rashid and Nisa Fasil. 36. Given the popularity of this book among CLAT aspirants, it is likely that a number of candidates were extremely familiar with these questions. As a result, almost 1,123 candidates were tied to each other on the same rank. In other words, each rank was tied among several students as they obtained identical scores. Consequently, the Organizing University was forced to devise arbitrary ways to break ties between candidates for the purpose of seat allocation, such as aggregate of marks secured by the candidates in 10+2 and Matriculation, age, and draw of lots. Given the number of candidates that tied at the same positions and the use of “luck” (draw of lots) to pick one over the other for a higher rank, it is clear that the purpose of the exam to serve as a rigorous filter to help select the most meritorious candidates was severely compromised. E. Out of Syllabus Questions 37. It is submitted that a number of CLAT papers posed questions that were clearly out of the stated syllabus. Illustratively in the 2015 CLAT paper set by RMLNLU, multiple questions under the ‘Legal Aptitude’ section were out of the scope of the prescribed syllabus for the test paper. As per the e-brochure of CLAT 2015, the syllabus prescribed for the Legal Aptitude section is as follows: Legal Aptitude (50 marks) This section will test candidate’s interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving ability. Questions will be framed with the help of legal propositions (described in the paper), and a set of facts to which the said proposition 36 has to be applied. Some propositions may not be “true” in the real sense (e.g. the legal proposition might be that any person who speaks in a movie hall and disturbs others who are watching the movie will be banned from entering any movie theatre across India for one year). Candidates will have to assume the “truth” of these propositions and answer the questions accordingly. 38. However, much to the hardship of the candidates who had relied on the prescribed syllabus in the e-brochure to prepare for CLAT 2015, Question numbers 139-160, that is, 22 questions, or 44% of the Legal Aptitude section, did not follow this prescribed syllabus in terms of asking candidates to apply a legal principle to a set of facts. On the other hand, these questions required prior knowledge of laws and legal principles. A few examples of such questions are reproduced below: i. Choose the best option for the following statement: The distinction between fraud and misrepresentation: 1. Fraud is more or less intentional wrong, whereas misrepresentation may be quite innocent. 2. In addition to rendering the contract voidable, is a cause of action in tort for damages. Simple misrepresentation is not a tort but a person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damages which he has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract. 3. A person complaining of misrepresentation can be met with the defence that he had “the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence". But excepting fraud by silence in other cases of fraud it is 37 no defence that “the plaintiff had the means of discovering the truth by ordinary diligence". 4. None of the above. Options : (A): 1 is correct. (B): 1 & 2 are correct. (C): 1, 2 & 3 are correct. (D): Only 4 is correct. ii. In a recent case a Supreme Court bench comprising of Justice Dipak Misra and Justice Prafulla C Pant held that the amount of maintenance to be awarded under Section 125 of CrPC cannot be restricted for the iddat period (three months) only as the inherent and fundamental principle behind Section 125. Also, it said that an order under Section 125 cannot be filed if a person, despite having sufficient means, neglects or refuses to maintain his wife. (A): Shamima Farooqui v. Shahid Khan (B): Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum (C): Hamida Bano v. Abdul Rasheed (D): Abdul Kadir v. Salima iii. Who called Indian Constitution as Quasi-Federal? (A): Austin (B): K. C. Wheare (C): H. M. Servai (D): Jennings 39. As noted earlier, rather than testing a candidate’s aptitude for the study of law and problem solving ability, these questions only test for a candidate’s prior legal knowledge and ability to memorize copious amounts of legal principles. Such principles could only be reasonably expected to be known by law students and legal practitioners, not law aspirants. 38 40. Similarly, the prescribed syllabus for the CLAT 2012 paper (organised by NLU Jodhpur, respondent no. 7) clearly stipulated that the legal aptitude section would not test for prior legal knowledge. Legal Aptitude (50 marks) This section will test students only on “legal aptitude”. Questions will be framed with the help of legal propositions (described in the paper), and a set of facts to which the said proposition has to be applied. Some propositions may not be “true” in the real sense (e.g. the legal proposition might be that any person who speaks in a movie hall and disturbs others who are watching the movie will be banned from entering any movie theatre across India for one year). Candidates will have to assume the “truth” of these propositions and answer the questions accordingly. Candidates will not be tested on any prior knowledge of law or legal concepts. If a technical/legal term is used in the question, that term will be explained in the question itself. For example, if the word patent is used, the meaning of patent (“a legal monopoly granted by the government for certain kinds of inventions”) will also be explained. 41. Despite the clear stipulation above, question numbers 181200 in the CLAT, 2012, required candidates to have prior knowledge of laws and legal principles in order to solve these questions. An example is offered below: i) Right to free and compulsory education for all children of the age of 6 to 14 years is: (A) a fundamental right enforceable in law (B) a fundamental duty 39 (C) a directive principle of state policy (D) a fundamental right which, however, can be enforced only if the state makes an enabling legislation F. Other errors 42. In the CLAT – 2011 exam (organized by W. B. National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata), a host of clerical errors were reported in the question paper handed over to candidates. Admittedly, it was found that answers to some of the questions were underlined in the exam papers distributed to UG applicants. Further, some of the questions in the test paper for PG applicants had printing errors. As a result, the University was forced to award grace marks to every candidate for each of such questions thereby comprising the quality of question paper. MALADMINISTRATION OF CLAT 43. Apart from the errors outlined above, the organization and conduct of CLAT over the years has also been plagued with issues of maladministration. Some of the most egregious ones relating in particular to the conduct of CLAT this year are outlined below. A. Defects in CLAT Merit List/Announcement of Results 44. In November 2014, Prof. Dr. Gurdip Singh, ViceChancellor of RMLNLU and Convenor of CLAT-2015 Core Committee, declared that each candidate would have access to her rank and score at the test centre, immediately after the exam. 40 45. CLAT 2015 was held on May 10, 2015. As per the CLAT calendar available on the CLAT website, the declaration of results i.e. issue of Merit List (Category-wise) along with the notice to the candidates for indicating their choices of University preferences using an online candidate portal was scheduled for May 20, 2015. 46. On May 20, 2015, candidates were notified of only their individual ranks and total scores on their passwordprotected CLAT website accounts. There was no public declaration of results. A writ (32024 of 2015) was filed before the Allahabad High Court by Aditya Dua and 10 other candidates to compel RMLNLU to publish, in accordance with the CLAT brochure, the full list of candidates with their ranks and scores, along with the question paper, the latter having been promised on the FAQ page of the CLAT website. The court immediately ordered the Organising University, RMLNLU (Respondent number 10) to publish both on May 26, 2015. However, by this time, the CLAT FAQ page was cleverly amended to state that no candidate would ever have access to the question paper. 47. The CLAT Convenor finally published the question paper and answer key on the CLAT website on June 1, 2015, albeit with the clarification that it was doing so on its own accord and not pursuant to the Allahabad High Court first order. It declared that the university allotment list would be released on its website on June 2, 2015. However, the seat allocation was eventually released on June 9, 2015, but only on the password- 41 protected accounts of the registered CLAT candidates, and not in the form of a list available for public view. The full merit list was published on the CLAT website only on June 12, 2015. 48. On June 15, the Kerala High Court, in response to a writ petition filed by CLAT candidate Anand A. Nair (WP No. 17817/2015 (B)), ordered a stay on CLAT university allotment for two weeks until the merit list of all candidates were published. B. Wrong Allotments 49. CLAT candidates from Madhya Pradesh were allotted wrong Universities. All of them had initially been allotted to NLIU Bhopal under the first allotment list. However, in the second list released on June 16, 2015, rather than moving upwards, they moved downwards (in terms of being allotted Universities ranked lower in their preference list). This owed itself to NLIU Bhopal’s (Respondent No. 5) decision to reduce its state domicile category seats by 26, and increase its All India seats by the same number. Upon a writ petition being filed by affected students before the Jabalpur High Court in the case of Tanya Pradhan v. National Law Institute University (WP No. 9216/2015) the court, in its final order, dated June 26, 2015, held that the erroneous allotment was caused due to error committed by the examining authority, that is, respondent no. 10, in calculating the seats of the students. C. Opacity/Lack of Transparency 49. The conduct of CLAT exams have been characterized by 42 appalling opacity. Illustratively, the composition of the two CLAT 2015 Expert Committees formed, or even the procedure for their formation is still not publicly known. RTI applications filed by the petitioners’ associates asking for the composition of the first Expert Committee have still not been responded to, despite the expiry of the mandatory 30-day period. In response to another RTI application querying the composition of the Expert Committee, the CLAT 2015 Convener rejected the request and stated that “information cannot be provided” without any grounds. Further, as noted earlier in this petition, an RTI application seeking a copy of the 2014 MoU entered among 16 National Law Universities, was refused on flimsy grounds. This conspicuous lack of transparency in relation to CLAT has only served to exacerbate the issue and cast further doubt on the integrity of this examination. 50. Further, as noted earlier, while the first expert committee found 2 errors in the paper, a later “expert committee” found no errors at all. This was revealed by the advocate for Respondent No. 10 who stated so in a writ proceeding before the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of Agrima Lailer vs Union of India and Others (WP No. 12388/2015). 51. An RTI request finally revealed the report of the second expert committee on the questions referred to it by the Delhi High Court in the petition filed by Pragya Budhraja and Kavya Lalchandani, referred to above. It is submitted that the assessment of the expert 43 committee in this report is utterly flawed and incorrect. D. Lack of Consultation/Meetings: 52. Additionally, as per the statements of Prof. Dr. Sukh Pal Singh and Prof. Dr. Vijender Kumar, Vice-Chancellors of HNLU and NLUJAA respectively (Respondents No. 8 and No 16), the core committee had met just once for CLAT2015, in October 2014. Unlike previous years the core committee had not met before the declaration of the results of CLAT 2015. 53. While the 2007 Memorandum of Understanding regarding the conduct of CLAT does not mention any minimum meetings to be held by the Core Committee, the fact that the committee had only met once in 2014 is demonstrative of a serious lack of concern for a proper conduct of the CLAT examination. It also reveals the lack of effective participation by the other national law universities in the administration of CLAT-2015. Further, given that the CLAT Core Committee had not met since October 2014, it could be inferred that the Expert Committee constituted by the CLAT Convenor (Respondent No.10) on two occasions to evaluate the integrity of questions was so constituted without any effective consultation with the CLAT Core Committee. If so, this is in breach of CLAT 2007 MoU, according to which the CLAT Core Committee/Implementation Committee is to formulate all policies pertaining to CLAT and administer/execute it. INCONSISTENCY IN CLAT POLICY 54. The absence of a permanent institutional setup for 44 effective coordination of the CLAT exam has led to the lack of consistency and uniformity in implementing CLAT. In particular, the syllabus, question paper pattern and other related processes have varied from year to year without any rationale, deliberation or adequate notice to students. This fatal institutional flaw has resulted in arbitrary policy changes and needless uncertainty in the minds of law aspirants. 55. As mentioned before, in 2012, in response to an RTI application, the then-CLAT Organizing University HNLU shared a copy of MoU – 2007 entered into between the seven NLUs on November 23, 2007. However, in 2015, when a similar RTI application was made to the CLAT2015 Convener RMLNLU seeking copies of MoU – 2007 and its successor, MoU – 2014, the University’s Public Information Officer (also the Convener of the CLAT-2015 Implementation Committee), rejected the application, claiming an exemption under Section 8(e) of the RTI Act. Firstly there is no section 8(e) of the Act; rather the correct provision is Section 8(1) (e). Secondly, even section 8(1) (e) speaks about a “fiduciary relationship” and exempts only when the disclosure would effectively compromise the fiduciary relationship. This is clearly not the case here, where the relationship between various NLU”s that have come together to conduct CLAT can hardly be called one of a fiduciary nature that requires protection and exemption from disclosure. This demonstrates a clear lack of coordination amongst the various CLAT members, the NLUs. 56. The Petitioner apprehends that many of these ad hoc 45 changes over the years were not sufficiently deliberated upon or discussed with all the members of the Core Committee. Given the revelation that the CLAT 2015 Core Committee had met only once during the entire year, one might reasonably infer that a number of changes are made in an ad-hoc fashion by the CLAT Organising University for that year, without due deliberation or discussion with other CLAT committee members. Such haphazard, ad-hoc policy changes with respect to the format and conduct of CLAT, have unduly affected the futures of several thousand students over the years. PUBLIC OUTCRY AGAINST THE EXAMINATION 57. Every year, CLAT papers have been riddled with errors and arbitrariness, causing tremendous public outcry and a host of writ petitions. In particular, the CLAT paper and process this year (2015) by RMNLU would rank as one of the worst, in terms of the quantity and quality of errors and the mode of execution. This coupled with various other infirmities in the conduct of the examination and an arrogant refusal to cater adequately to student concerns (detailed in later paragraphs under a separate section), led to widespread agitation throughout the country, including an agitation outside RMLNLU. 58. As with previous years, a number of writ petitions have been filed against the conduct of CLAT this year as well, some of which are highlighted below: 1. A writ petition was filed before the Bombay High Court (WP (Lodging) No. 1784/2015) contesting the accuracy of 46 seven questions in the CLAT UG test paper. On July 2, 2015, the Hon’ble High Court ordered CLAT-2015 convener RMLNLU Lucknow to appoint an expert committee/panel to review the allegedly wrong questions/answer keys. A True copy of oral judgment dated 02.07.2015 in W.P (Lodging) No. 1784/2015 passed by High Court of Judicature at Bombay is annexed herewith as Annexure P/7 [Pages ____ to ____] 2. In a writ petition filed by CLAT 2015 LLM candidate Anuradha Jain, challenging the accuracy of nine questions in the CLAT-2015 PG test paper, the court ordered the CLAT-2015 Convenor to “expeditiously” form an expert committee to look into the impugned questions and revise the merit list accordingly. A True copy of order dated 06.07.2015 in WP(C) No. 1025/2015 passed by High Court of Chhattisgarh, Bilaspur is annexed herewith as Annexure P/8 [Pages ____ to ____]. 3. In a writ petition filed before the Jaipur bench of the Rajasthan High Court by a CLAT-2015 UG candidate Rashi Mangal contesting the accuracy of 15 questions in the CLAT UG test paper, the Hon’ble High Court, referring to the judgment of the Bombay High Court in the case of Subham Dutt referred above, held that the expert committee appointed by the Bombay High Court will have to scrutinize the impugned 15 questions as well. A True copy of order dated 07.07.2015 in S.B Civil Writ Petition No. 7970/2015 and 8480/2015 passed by High Court of Judicature for Rajasthan at Jaipur Bench, Jaipur is annexed herewith as Annexure P/9 [Pages ____ to ____]. 47 4. In a writ petition filed before the Jodhpur bench of the Rajasthan High Court titled Parul Sharma v. Union of India & Anr., WP(C) 6413/2015 by a CLAT-2015 UG candidate Parul Sharma contesting the validity of seven questions in the UG test paper, the Hon’ble High Court followed the lead of its Jaipur counterpart, and in an order mirroring the Jaipur bench’s order two days prior, referred 3 more questions to the Bombay High Court-appointed expert committee, in addition to the 18 questions already referred to it. A True copy of the order dated 13.07.2015 of the Hon'ble High Court of Judicature for Rajasthan at Jodhpur in S.B Civil WP No. 6413/2015 is annexed herewith as Annexure P/10 [Pages ____ to ____] 5. In the writ petition filed before the Delhi High Court titled Pragya Budhraja & Anr v. Union of India & Ors., W.P.(C) No. 6030/2015 by two CLAT-2015 challenging the validity of 30 questions in the UG test paper, the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi, like the Chhattisgarh and Rajasthan High Courts, referred the questions to the Expert Committee ordered to be constituted by the Bombay High Court. A True copy of the Order of the High Court of Delhi at New Delhi dated 14.07.2015 in W.P (C) No. 6030/2015 is annexed herewith as Annexure P/11 [Pages ____ to ____]. 59. In short, the CLAT Convener had been directed by the High Courts of Bombay, Chhattisgarh, Delhi and Rajasthan to constitute an expert committee to look into 30 questions in the UG test paper and 9 questions in the PG paper. However, the CLAT Convener has not 48 issued any notification on its website regarding the formation of an expert committee. In fact, after publishing the final university seat allocations on July 1, 2015, the CLAT Convener notified the formal closure of the CLAT Office with effect from July 7, 2015, and has done nothing to acknowledge the orders of the Hon’ble High Courts. It is only on July 13, that in a writ proceeding before the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of Agrima Lailer v. Union of India and Ors. (WP (C) No. 12388/2015), relating to incorrect questions in the CLAT-2015 test paper, that the advocate of the respondent, CLAT 2015 Convener RMLNLU acknowledged the formation of the second expert committee, stating that the committee had reviewed the test paper and not found any further errors. 60. Since the classes for LLB and LLM programs have already commenced at most of the participating national law schools from July 1 onwards, any revisions in the merit list is not likely to make any difference to the fate of several thousand students who suffered as a result of this gross negligence and arbitrariness. FAIT ACCOMPLI 61. It is submitted that the CLAT committees as well as the participating NLU’s are well aware of the fact that given the short window between the announcement of CLAT results and final admissions at NLU’s, the courts’ hands are tied, since it may not wish to disrupt admissions. This is more than amply illustrated in Ujjwal Madan and Others v. Union of India and Others (WP No. 49 3208/2012), where the Delhi High Court chose to desist from interfering with the CLAT process, despite clear evidence of out-of-syllabus questions being presented to it. The courts reasoning was that this was premature since the CLAT results had not been announced as yet, and the contesting respondents were in the process of actively considering representations made by other candidates regarding out-of-syllabus questions in the paper. The court held that once the results were declared, the petitioner was free to approach the courts. However, a mere two months later, in the case of Shivangi Gupta vs. National Law University Jodhpur and Another, the same court, while rejecting the petition ruled that since admissions to all NLU’s had completed and students had deposited their fees, it could not interfere with the results or the admissions process. Further, in the Archit Krishna case referred to earlier, although the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi found that the candidate was eligible for admission into a university of higher preference, the court did not grant the relief of transfer, primarily because the petitioner had already finished one year of his course in his originally allotted university, and there was no vacancy in the university of higher preference. Hence, the court had not option but to decline interference. 62. In short, the tiny window between the declaration of exam results and admissions constitutes a perfect fait accompli for the CLAT authorities, causing serious harm to all students, both present and future and impacts the integrity of the CLAT filter and the future of legal 50 education. 63. As noted earlier, the CLAT process and results were challenged before the Hon’ble High Courts of Bombay, Chhattisgarh, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh (Jabalpur Bench), Punjab and Haryana, and Rajasthan (both Jaipur and Jodhpur benches). Both the Bombay and Chhattisgarh High Courts specifically directed that university seat allocations be conditional on the findings of the “expert committee” tasked with examining the veracity of questions/answer. However, CLAT Convener appears to have brazenly ignored these court rulings and declared on the CLAT website that the CLAT office stood closed from July 7, 2015 onwards. 64. It is submitted that this is a deliberate move on the part of the CLAT Convener to frustrate the course of justice by shutting office, when it is in the middle of several cases and writ petitions. Since most NLU’s have already begun their academic year with the fresh batch of incoming students, there is very little possibility of a court disturbing the academic schedule and admissions at this point in time. As noted earlier, a rather short window between the CLAT results and the finalizing of admissions serves as a fait accompli for all the egregious errors of CLAT in the past. This could be avoided if there were a permanent CLAT body that formulated an error free paper, held the exam in a professional manner and left enough time between the declaration of results and admissions, so as to provide a reasonable window to redress the potential grievances 51 of students. BEST PRACTICES 65. It is submitted that the Respondents are mostly likely to be aware of the Law School Admission Test (‘LSAT’), which is analogous to CLAT in the US, is conducted in an institutionalized and transparent manner. The LSAT is administered by the Law School Admission Council (‘LSAC’). Some of the key takeaways from the LSAT are as below: (h) Organizational Structure: LSAC is an incorporated independent trust, dedicated for the sole purpose for administering the entrance test for admissions to law schools in US. The functions of the body are carried through various committees under the supervision of an independent Board of Trustees. The key functions and roles are clearly defined under various by-laws. (i) Expert Body: The LSAC employs dedicated professionals with specialized training, known as ‘Test Specialists’, to develop high quality questions for the LSAT that are sensitive to the diversity of various candidates taking the LSAT exam. Their day to day job requires the writing, review, and revision of questions that are designed to assess informal reasoning and deductive reasoning skills. Educational qualifications for eligibility for the Test Specialist postion include an MA and doctoral level work in philosophy, theoretical linguistics, literature, or some related discipline requiring strong reading, reasoning, and analytical skills. 52 (j) Rigorous Execution: It is submitted that the tasks of viewing, revising, and editing test questions is a rigorous process which draws heavily on the analytical skills taught in analytic philosophy, close reading and analysis of texts, careful drawing of implications, identifying ambiguities and category mistakes. questions Working calls with upon reading comprehension philosophical skill in understanding and analyzing texts. Other skills used include the ability to see multiple readings and multiple sides of an argument and sensitivity to issues of fairness and the concerns of various population groups. While reviewing test questions, test specialists only focus on ensuring that they are clear and unambiguous, test for the appropriate skill, and have one and only one best answer. The LSAC works in a very professional, manner and relies a lot on contract item writers. These item writers send their questions to a testing company, where the editors pick the ones they like, make appropriate changes, and then send the items to LSAC. The items receive another level of editing/review and then are placed on experimental test sections. The tests are administered and statistics are gathered. On the basis of data generated, the good items go to real test forms, while others go back for more editing and then another chance in an experimental section. A True copy of the Law School Admission Council Certificate of Incorporation and Byelaws dated Nil is 53 annexed herewith as Annexure P/12 [Pages ____ to ____]. 66. Apart from the above, the Respondents are also likely to be aware of third party organisations that they could outsource the test to, such that it is conducted in a more professional and consistent manner year after year. 67. It is submitted that whatever be the potential future option, it is clear that the present state of affairs with individual law schools conducting the exam from scratch each year cannot be permitted to continue. It is thus that this petition seeks the courts’ intervention to constitute an expert committee comprising members of the bench, bar and academia that could review the working of CLAT in the past and determine the best way forward in terms of institutionalizing it and minimizing the possibility of errors in future. In particular, such expert committee could study the following issues and make recommendations: 1. The process by which paper setters have been selected in the past by the various CLAT organisers and their qualifications, institutional affiliations and designations. 2. The nature of past CLAT errors and mishaps with a view to recommending future changes that would minimise the scope for errors and mistakes. 3. The feasibility of instituting a permanent CLAT body staffed with full time experts, and part time consultants and paper setters. 4. The pros and cons of outsourcing CLAT to a third 54 party professional body with proven expertise in conducting a high quality entrance examination. 5. Formulating a syllabus for CLAT that provides ample and clear notice to prospective law students and tests in the most scientific way for one’s aptitude for the study of law. 6. A comparative study of best practices from India and abroad, including in particular, a review of the IIT-JEE exam and other leading entrance examinations from India, as also leading law entrance examinations from abroad such as LSAT. 7. The CLAT application fees charged, with a view to examining whether or not this constitutes a significant barrier to access to education. Further, determining an appropriate application fee to be charged such that a permanent CLAT body can be set up and run in a financially sustainable manner. 8. The window between announcement of the CLAT results and the closure of admissions and the feasibility of providing a robust grievance redressal mechanism for students aggrieved by the results. 9. The extent of transparency in the conduct of the examination and the need to make the exam fully transparent. 10. The need to provide all CLAT materials and other information in an easy to access mode for potential students, in order to attract them to the study of law. 11. The need for robust counseling and information/advise to students such that they can make 55 the best and most informed choice about NLU preferences etc. 12. The feasibility of providing both an online and offline exam format, given that the study of law at premier NLU’s ought to be opened up to those from marginalised and impoverished communities, who may often not have access to computers and be IT literate to an extent sufficient enough to enable them to compete meaningfully in an online exam format. GROUNDS 68. The present Writ Petition is being filed on the following A. grounds and without prejudice to one another: THAT the Chief Justice of India and the Chief Justices of the respective High Courts act as parens patriae for the Respondent Universities and it is in the interests of the legal profession that proper aptitude tests for admissions to these Universities are transparently B. administered. THAT the Common Law Admission Test is the most prestigious examination in the country in the field of law providing a single-window admission to more than 17 institutions, including the National Law Schools, and that therefore the repeated errors in the conduct of the examination has adversely prejudiced the careers of C. thousands of innocent students. THAT by virtue of being opaque, ad-hoc, arbitrary, inconsistent, open to abuse and plagued by plagiarism and inaccuracies, the CLAT examinations breach the rights of students under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution. 56 D. THAT the present practice of paper-setting is arbitrary and irrational, inasmuch as there is a huge inconsistency in the standards and quality of questions papers set each year, and therefore violative of Article E. 14 of the Constitution. THAT the present practice of paper-setting is arbitrary and irrational, inasmuch as the paper-setters entrusted with the framing of question papers are often illequipped and unqualified, as the preparation of question papers requires knowledge, skill and expertise in psychometrics or its equivalent, in order to F. scientifically test the legal aptitude of candidates. THAT the present practice of framing question papers has been thoroughly ineffective, inasmuch as the questions are being reproduced verbatim from private guidebooks and other publically available resources, thereby diluting the credibility and standards of the G. examination. THAT the present practice of framing question papers is arbitrary and irrational, inasmuch as the papers contain irrelevant, wrong and hyper-technical questions which have no nexus to one’s aptitude for H. the study of law. THAT repeated errors in the framing of the question paper and the validity of answer keys has diluted the credibility of the examination, and cast serious aspersions on the ability to identify students with I. aptitude for the study of law. THAT the rotation policy by NLUs for the purpose of conducting CLAT has resulted in gross inefficiencies and woeful incompetence in that each law school has 57 to prepare for and conduct the CLAT exam from scratch, resulting often in numerous mistakes and J. mishaps. THAT the rotation policy has led to inconsistent and ad hoc practices and procedures in all aspects of the K. examination. THAT with each year, the number of errors and inefficiencies in the organization of the Common Law Admission Test have been increasing, and NLUs lack the necessary expertise, infrastructure and resources to rigorously conduct the examination on a nation-wide L. scale. THAT the present practice of administering the CLAT exam and selecting students through it is completely non-transparent, inasmuch as critical activities and decisions pertaining to the entrance test are shrouded in secrecy, with the result that the authorities have M. effectively been evading public scrutiny. THAT in a highly competitive examination such as CLAT where the difference of only one mark separates so many ranks and potentially prevents candidates from getting their preferred college, it is prudent that the conduct and implementation of the examination is left N. to experts. THAT in so far as CLAT generates significant revenues each year from the sales of exorbitantly priced application forms, there is no additional financial burden upon the participating NLUs for institutionalizing CLAT through a permanent body that avails the services of full time qualified, professional 58 and O. competent personnel for the purpose of conducting the examination. THAT there seems to be no rationale for the steady increase in the fees charged merely for the conduct of the examination, which does not even include the supply of test materials. Rs.3,500 is no small amount and places a prohibitive burden on less fortunate families, especially when a variety of exams are to be taken on completing schooling. With the revenue generated in 2015 being Rs.16 crore, the Respondents have to demonstrate that this is not a profit-making enterprise, but that the amounts are effectively used for the purpose of administering and bettering CLAT P. each year. THAT it is essential that this Hon’ble Court appoint an expert committee to examine the present working of CLAT with a view to making suggestions for reform, including inter-alia the need for a permanent body staffed with experts, such that the questions posed are of the highest scientific quality meant to test for one’s aptitude for the study of law, and the exam is conducted in the most professional, consistent and error free manner year after year. Such committee could consist of key stakeholders in legal education and the legal profession, including academia, judiciary and the Bar. PRAYER It is most respectfully prayed that this Hon’ble Court be pleased to: 59 (a) Pass a Writ of Mandamus or any other appropriate writ, order or direction to appoint an expert committee consisting of key stakeholders from the legal ecosystem (comprising members of Academia, the Bench and the Bar) to review the working of the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) and suggest institutional reforms with a view to placing it on a more robust institutional pedestal such that the exam is of a very high calibre, standards are consistent and the exam is conducted in the most professional and scientific and error free manner each year; and/or (b) Pass a Writ of Mandamus or any other appropriate writ, order or direction to the Respondents to constitute an independent professional permanent body tasked with conducting CLAT on an annual basis on behalf of scientific, the Respondent competent and Universities consistent in a manner, minimising the scope for errors in paper setting and in the administration of the exam, including framing of syllabus, determination of application fees and concessions, format of exam, declaration of results, announcement of merit lists, counselling and allotments; (c) Pass a Writ of Mandamus or any other appropriate writ, order or direction against the Respondents to be fully transparent in the conduct of CLAT and comply with proactive disclosure norms as provided for under the Right to Information Act, 2005; and 60 (d) pass such other and further orders as are deemed fit and appropriate in the interest of justice. FILED BY DRAWN BY: MR. SHAMNAD BASHEER MS.LIZ MATHEW ADVOCATE FOR PETITIONER Drawn On : .08.2015 Filed On : .08.2015 ANNEXURE P-1 SHAMNAD BASHEER Managing Trustee, IDIA Charitable Trust C/o. Spire No.45, 2nd Floor, Jubilee Building Museum Road, Bangalore 560 025 (shamnad@gmail.com: 9818825148) I. ACADEMIC QUALIFICATIONS DPhil (PhD): University of Oxford (2013) MPhil: University of Oxford (2004-2005) BCL (distinction): University of Oxford (2002-2003) BALLB (Hons.): National Law School of India University (NLSIU), India II. CURRENT POSITIONS ? Founder and Managing Trustee, IDIA (Increasing Diversity by Increasing Access to Legal Education) (2010 onwards) ? Visiting Professor, Masters in Public Policy Programme, National Law School of India University, Bangalore: (2015 onwards) ? Associate, Oxford IP Research Center (OIPRC), Univ of Oxford: (2004 onwards) ? Founder, SpicyIP, a blog dedicated to Indian IP (rated by MIP as one of 50 most influential IP personalities) ? Founder, Promoting Public Interest Lawyering (P-PIL), a forum to leverage synergies between legal academia and practice to achieve shared public interest goals. ? Member, Expert Committee on Access and Benefit Sharing, National Biodiversity Authority (NBA): (2012 onwards) ? Research Affiliate, IP Osgoode, Canada: (2008 onwards) ? Founder, Lex Biosis, a collaborative initiative between lawyers and law students to enhance clinical learning ? Founder, CLAM, an online platform for collaborative policy making ? Editorial Board, Journal of Intellectual Property Rights (JIPR): (2011 onwards) ? Advisory Panel Member, Indian Journal of Intellectual Property Law: (2008 onwards) ? Editorial Board Member, India Business Law Journal: (2007 onwards) ? Editorial Board Member, Christ College Law Review ? Editor: PharmAsia (Portal dealing with pharmaceutical news from Asia) ? Founder member of EDIP, an online intellectual property database. ? Apex Member, Patent Facilitating Centre, TIFAC ? Member, Academic Council, NUALS, Cochin ? Member, Academic Council, University of Allahabad III. PAST POSITIONS (ACADEMIC/ RESEARCH) ? Ministry of HRD Chaired Professor in Intellectual Property Law, West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences (NUJS), Kolkata, India: (November 2008-Feb 2014) ? Frank H. Marks Visiting Associate Professor of Intellectual Property Law, George Washington University, Washington, US: (2008-2009) ? Visiting Scholar, University of Washington School of Law, April-May 2012 ? Expert, Global Advisory Council (IP), World Economic Forum (2011-2013) ? Visiting Faculty, Munich IP Law Center, (May-July 2007) ? Member, India Project, GW University: (2006-2007) ? Visiting Faculty, LSE Summer School in IP law: (May-June 2006) ? Visiting Scholar, University of Illinois at Urbana Champaign, Illinois: (September 2005-January 2006) ? Invited Research Fellow, Institute of Intellectual Property (IIP), Japan: (2003-2004) ? Tutor, Sarah Lawrence Program, Wadham College, University of Oxford (Tutorials on Patent Law): 2003-2004 ? Visiting Scholar, CUSAT, Cochin, 2012-2013 ? Visiting Faculty, Indian Law Institute, New Delhi : 20002002 ? Editor: Oxford Commonwealth Law Journal (2003-04) IV. PRACTICE/CONSULTANCY Anand and Anand - Leading Indian Intellectual Property Law Firm, Delhi ?Period: January 2000--end of 2002. ?Position: Was a Senior Associate and Head of Technology and Media Law Division. ?Practice Areas: Intellectual Property Litigation, Advisory and Transactional (dealing with technology transfers, licensing agreements etc). Intellectual Property Consultancy/Other Assignments: 1. Consultant, Innovate Legal, London (Jan 2008-present): advising on aspects of Indian pharmaceutical patent law. 2. Ongoing consultancy (government, to various inter-government IP agencies, stakeholders law firms, NGO's and policy think tanks) on various aspects of Indian intellectual property V. SCHOLARSHIPS, AWARDS AND DISTINCTIONS 2015: Infosys Award for research excellence in humanities (law), selected by jury headed by Nobel laureate, Prof Amartya Sen. 2014: Award for Excellence in IP Education (by LegalEra) 2014: SpicyIP, a blog I founded was rated by MIP as one of 50 most influential IP earlier for 2011) personalities for 2014.(and 2012: Amicus-Academic Intervenor in the Novartis vs UOI landmark patent case at the Indian Supreme Court. Made submissions to the court and argued for two days. 2012: Cited by the Controller General of Patents in his decision granting India's first compulsory licensing decision (Natco vs Bayer) 2011: Selected to be on the Global Advisory Council for IP on the World Economic Forum (WEF) 2011: Rated as one amongst the top 10 patent academics whose works are downloaded the most from SSRN in 2011 (the only non US academic from the ten member list). 2010: Selected for the European Union Visitors Programme (EUVP) for year 2011 (a programme that facilitates dialogue between EUVP Fellows and EU Policy Makers) 2007: Awarded the first place in a writing contest held by ATRIP for an article dealing with the Novartis-Gleevec patent case in India. 2004: Awarded the second prize in a writing contest held by the Stanford Technology Law Review for an article on biotechnology and patent law in India. 2004: Awarded the MS Lin Scholarship to attend the Inter Pacific Bar Association (IPBA) conference in Seoul. 2003: Awarded the Wellcome Trust studentship prize and the Clarendon Scholarship for the Mphil/Dphil at Oxford. 2003: Awarded a distinction on the BCL at Oxford. 2003: Awarded the IBA (International Bar Association) scholarship. 2002: Awarded the Shell Centenary-British Chevening Scholarship for the BCL at Oxford. 2001: Awarded the second best prize by the Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI) for an article on "Internet and Intellectual Property Rights". VI. PROFESSIONAL QUALIFICATIONS 2005: Solicitor, UK 2002: Patent agent, registered with the Patent Office, India 1999: Advocate, Bar Council of India (called to the Bar in August 1999) VII. PROFESSIONAL AFFILIATIONS (past and present) 2008: Member of GLG (Gerson Lehrman Group) Council: group of experts/consultants in various disciplines 2002: International Bar Association (IBA) 2002: Inter Pacific Bar Association (IPBA) 2001: Computer Law Association (CLA) VIII. PROFESSIONAL AWARDS Rated as one of the leading technology lawyers in India by the IFLR 1000 guide (a Euromoney publication) in 2002. IX. PUBLICATIONS Books: Published: 1. When Intellectual Property Rights Overlap (co-edited with Neil Wilkof), OUP 2012. (Indian edition of book with Indian introductory chapter, OUP India 2013). Forthcoming: 1. Patent Law and Policy in India: A Developmental Perspective (forthcoming book by OUP: expected date: 2016) 2. Copyright Amendment Act (2012): A Fair Balance (forthcoming edited book by EBC: expected date: 2016) Book Chapters: 1. Pharmaceutical Patent Enforcement: A Developmental Perspective "Patent Law in Global Perspective" Bagley and Okediji (ed), OUP, 2014 2. The WIPO Development Agenda: Factoring in the "Technologically Proficient" Developing Countries "Implementing WIPO's Development Agenda" DeBeer (ed), (Wilfred International Development Laurier University Governance Research Press/Centre for Innovation/International Centre, Waterloo, Ontario, 2009). 3. Trademark Issues on the Internet: Domain Name Dispute Resolution, "Information Technology Law in India" (Indian Law Institute, New Delhi, 2004). 4. Media Laws in India 'Investing in India' (Asia Law and Practice, Euromoney Publications (Jersey) Limited, 2002). 5. E-commerce in India: An E-volving E-jurisprudence 'Asian E-volution' (Asia Law & Practice, Euromoney Publications (Jersey) Limited, 2001). Reports: 1. Was part of a team of international experts that prepared a WIPO Report on the Informal Economy and Intellectual Property (2014) 2. Led the team that prepared a WHO report on Intellectual Property and Public Health (2014). 3. Undertook a commissioned report for WIPO (Standing Committee on Patents) on exceptions/limitations to patents, as part of a team led by Professor Lionel Bentley. 4. Prepared a report on the state of IP infrastructure in India for the EU as part of the EU TIDP Project (2006). 5. Undertook an extensive survey of Indian Patent Law and prepared reports on the compulsory licensing regime, experimental use provisions and patent pooling in India on behalf of the Institute of Intellectual Property (IIP), Tokyo and Japanese Patent Office (JPO) in 2004. 6. Authored reports for the Intellectual Property Institute (IPI) on pharmaceutical patents and regulatory data protection. Papers (Refereed): 1. Alternative Incentives for Pharmaceutical Innovation, 27 Intellectual Property Journal (IPJ) 13, 2014. 2. The Invention of an Investment Incentive for Pharmaceutical Innovation, Journal of World Intellectual Property, (2012) Vol. 00, no. 00, pp. 1-60 3. How to Achieve International Action on Falsified and Substandard Medicines, British Medical Journal (BMJ), 2012;345:e7381 (with Amir Attaran et al) 4. The Doctrine of Equivalents in Various Patent Regimes: Does Anybody Have it Right?, 11 Yale J.L. & Tech. 261, 2009 [co-authored with 7 others, including The Hon. Sir Nicholas Pumfrey, Justice Meirbeck and Prof Adelman]). 5. Exhausting Copyrights and Promoting Access to Education: An Empirical Take Journal of Intellectual Property Rights, Vol 17, July 2012, pp 335-347 (coauthored with Khettry, Nandy and Mitra) 6. The Experimental Use Exception: A Developmental Perspective, IDEA Volume 50, Number 4, 2010, page 831-873 (with Prashant Reddy) 7. Outsourcing "Bayh Dole" to India: Lost in Transplantation, Columbia Journal of Asian Law, Volume 23, Number 2, Spring 2010 8. Turning TRIPS On Its Head: An IP "Cross Retaliation" Model for Developing Countries, Law and Development Review, Berkeley Press, Volume 1, 2010. 9. Section 377 and the 'Order of Nature': Nurturing 'Indeterminacy' in the Law?, NUJS Law Review, Vol.2, No. 3, 2009 10. The "Efficacy" of Indian Patent Law: Ironing out the Creases in Section 3(d), Volume 5, Issue 2, Script-ed, August 2008. (co-authored with Prashant Reddy) 11. 'Ducking' TRIPS in India: A Saga Involving Novartis and the Legality of Section 3(d) National Law School of India Review, Vol. 20, No. 2, pp. 131-155, 2008. 12. TRIPS, Patents and Parallel Imports: A Proposal for Amendment, Indian Journal of Intellectual Property Law , Vol. 2, pp. 63-86, 2009 (with M Kochupillai) 13. Exhausting' Patent Rights in India: Parallel Imports and TRIPS Compliance, Journal of Intellectual Property Rights, Vol. 13, pp. 486-497, September 2008 (with Mrinalini Kochupillai). 14. Popping Patented Pills: Europe and a Decade's Dose of TRIPs EIPR Volume 28 Issue 4 (May 2006). (with David Vaver) (in French translation as "Overdose de medicaments brevets: l'Europe dans un 'TRIPS' depuis dix ans" in Bernard Remiche & Jorge Kors (eds.), L'Accord ADPIC: dix ans apres (Eds. Larcier, Brussels, 2007) 129; (reprinted in N. Sudarshan (ed.), Public Health and Law (ICFAI University, Law Books Division, Hyderabad, 2008). 15. India's New Patent Regime: Aiding Access or Abetting Genericide International Journal of Biotechnology, 8 (5) 2006. 16. Taming of the Flu: Working Through the Tamiflu Patents in India Journal of Intellectual Property Rights 11(2)(2006) 113-124 (with Tahir Amin) 17. India's Tryst with TRIPS: The Patents (Amendment) Act 2005 1 Indian J. L. & Tech. 15 (2005). (reprinted in in Edson Beas Rodrigues Jr. and Fabricio Polido (ed), Propriedade Intelectual (Rio de Janeiro, Elsevier, 2007) and in N. Sudarshan (ed.), Public Health and Law (ICFAI University, Law Books Division, Hyderabad, 2008). 18. Policy Style Reasoning at the Indian Patent Office Intellectual Property Quarterly (IPQ), 2005, 3, 309-323 (paper based on BCL thesis submitted at Univ of Oxford that was the winner of second prize in a contest by Stanford Technology Law Review (STLR)). 19. Block Me Not: Genes as Essential Facilities? Journal of Law, Technology and Policy (2005) Issue No 2, 55. (reprinted in Journal of Intellectual Property Rights, September 2006, 11(5) 309-390). Other Papers: 1. Indian Legal Education: Some Thoughts for Reform, Concept Note Prepared for committee headed by Gopal Subramanium, SG, India. available at < http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm? abstract_id=1584037 > 2. The "Glivec" Patent Saga: A 3-d perspective on Indian patent policy and TRIPS Compliance, ATRIP, 2007 (Best Paper Award by ATRIP) 3. Block Me Not: Genes as Essential Facilities: IIP, International Collaboration on Intellectual Property, Tokyo, 2003. 4. Regulatory Data Protection under Article 39.3 of TRIPS: Towards a Compensatory Liability Standard, India Paper No 108, Intellectual Property Institute (IPI), London (Commissioned by the IPI and available at ) 5. TRIPS Compatibility Review of the Patents Amendment Act 2005, India Paper No 106, Intellectual Property Institute (IPI), London (Commissioned bhy the IPI and available at ). 6. The Patents Amendment Act, 2005: Implications In and Outside India, 62 IIP 43 (with Mrinalini Kochupillai). 7. Unleashing the True Potential of Convergence: Will the Law be a Damp Squib, 'Computer and Telecommunications Law Review' (Sweet and Maxwell, London November 2002). 8. IP Owners Win Indian World Cup Contest 'Managing Intellectual Property' (Sweet and Maxwell, London, August 2002). 9. India Liberalizes Domain Name Policy 'International Internet Law Review' (Sweet and Maxwell, London, Feb 2001). 10. Patenting Genes and Gene Sequences: The Next El Dorado (EDIP [Electronic Database of Intellectual Property], Oxford, January 2001) 11. Confidentiality of Genetic Information: Need for Legislation 5 Law & Medicine 101 (1999) 12. Cash in on Geno-Dollars 'Science Express' May 2000 13. Internet and Intellectual Property Rights 30 (8) Chartered Secretary (August 2000). 14. Establishing Rights/Legitimate Interests in a Domain Name: Cyber squatters Get Creative 'Computer and Telecommunications Law Review' (Sweet and Maxwell, London, January 2001). 15. Compulsory Licensing Under Competition Law: the Concept of Essentiality Know IP - Stockholm Network Monthly Bulletin on IPRS, Vol 2, Issue 1, February 2006. Newspaper Editorials: 1. These Rancid Rankings, Indian Express, Feb 10, 2015 (critiquing IP rankings for their flawed methodology). 2. Patented Price Gouging and the Enduring Enigma of Drug Costs, LiveMint, December 17, 2014 (advocating that drug makers be forced to disclosed individual R&D costs for drugs) 3. Fixing the Tribunal Mess, Financial Express, Oct 10, 2014 (analyzing the SC decision striking down the National Tax Tribunal as Unconstitutional) 4. New Drug Era, Indian Express, September 27, 2014, (highlighting the erosion of the innovator:generic divide) 5. Judging a Democratic Deficit, Indian Express, September 9, 2014 (advocating that there be public consultation in all Indian law/policy making) 6. Patently Positive, Financial Express, June 20, 2014 (arguing that Indian IP law is not biased and protective of IP owners too) 7. Innovation that Includes, Indian Express, April 26, 2014 (discussing the need to democratize the innovation ecosystem and make it "inclusive") 8. From Ambedkar to Doniger: Can Copyright Law Rescue Books at Risk, Firstpost, March 28, 2014 (discussing compulsory licensing, copyright and free speech). 9. Patent Error, Indian Express, Feb 20, 2014 (critiquing the US industry ranking of Indian IP) 10. When Fair is Foul, and Foul is Fair, Hindu, December 30, 2013 (discussing the Khobrogade scandal and sexual harassment controversies in India and why a strict legal view is not the answer) 11. Patent Lies and Convenient Truths, Hindu, September 4, 2013 (discussing the hypocrisy of the US in the international IP dialogues) 12. Why Students Need the Right to Copy, Hindu, April 26, 2013 (discussing the OUP copyright case against Delhi University pertaining to student photocopying). 13. Patent with a Purpose, Indian Express, April 3, 2013 (analyzing the Novartis decision in the larger context of Pharma Innovation Policy). 14. Publishers vs Students, Indian Express, August 30, 2012 (discussing controversy between the copyright Delhi photocopying University and book publishers) 15. Set the Bar Higher, Indian Express, May 2012 (discussing the future of legal education reform in India) 16. CLAT: A Question of Aptitude, Times of India, April 9, 2012 (discussing CLAT and strategies for preparation) 17. A Life Saver, Indian Express, March 15, 2012 (discussing India's first compulsory licensing order) 18. Let's Bridge the Democratic Deficit, Times of India (Crest Edition), 16 April 2011 (advocating for opening up the policy making process in the wake of Hazare agitation) 19. Govt for Legalising Parallel Import of Copyright Works; Publishers Oppose, Economic Times 17 March 2011 (dealing with parallel imports and access to education) 20. Remainders of the Day: A Case for Parallel Imports (dealing with parallel imports of books), Mint, 25 Feb 2011. 21. Build Patent Regime on Fortified Law, Economic Times, 7 October 2010 (with Prashant Reddy: discussing the unconstitutionality of the present compulsory licensing scheme) 22. In the Service of Privacy, Times of India (Crest Edition), 7 August 2010 (advocating for a privacy legislation) 23. Sold for a Song, Indian Express, 16 July 2010 (advocating for better remuneration and royalties for copyright artists, lyricists and musicians. 24. Don't Burn the Digitial Books, Indian Express, Feb 11, 2010 (dealing with copyright issues in the context of the Google Book Search project) 25. '3 Idiots' and the Morality of Numbers, Indian Express, Jan 7, 2010 (dealing with the copyright controversy involving Chetan Bhagat and the movie 3 Idiots) 26. Saying No to the Wrong Drugs, Indian Express, September 24, 2009 (dealing with definition of spurious drugs) 27. Encouraging Drug Innovation, Mint, August 27, 2009 (dealing with the revised Mashelkar Committee Report) 28. The Law, Smoke and Mirrors, Mint, March 12, 2009 (dealing with a ban on the advertising of "smoking") 29. Creating Informal IP Norms, Mint, December 23, 2008 30. A Method to the Madness, Mint, November 5, 2008 (discussing software patents in India). 31. Indian Patent Bill: Let's Not be too Hasty, Sci-Dev, 10 Sept 2008 (Bayh Dole Bill). 32. Make that Bargain Equitable, Mint, August 26, 2008 (discussing WTO-TRIPS and cross retaliation). 33. The Potency of a Middle Path, Mint, July 9, 2008 (discussing patents and drug regulation). 34. Break with Tradition, Indian Express, July 5, 2008 (discussing the Kerala TK protection model) 35. Ranbaxy-Daiichi Merger: An Ardhnarishwar Model? DNA, July 10, 2008. Emerging 36. The Rhetoric of Patent Busting, Indian Express, April 12, 2008 (discussing the Roche vs Cipla (Tarceva) litigation 37. Patent Problem DNA, August 29, 2007 (discussing the pharma vs generic wars( 38. Pharma MNCs Bullying Govt with China Sword? Economic Times, 14 August 2007. 39. Empty Allegations, DNA, Feb 25, 2007 (discussing the Mashelkar Committee Report Controversy) 40. Baazee, Bajaj, and Bailing out the Law, Economic Times, February 5, 2005 41. Of Generics, Pharmaceutical Patents and the Countdown to 2005: A Note to Policy Makers, Economic Times, 26th September 2004 (dealing with pharma mailbox applications). Interviews: 1. How to Secure Creative Capital, India Today (Aspire), April 2015. 2. Maverick Holistic Lawyers Career 360, 9th Jan, 2015 3. Novartis Verdict will Help Genuine Drug Innovation, The Hindu, 6 April 2013 4. The Current Patent System is Deeply Flawed, Frontline (May 2012), Volume 29, Issue 8. 5. Law and Behold, The Hindu 7th Jan 2011 (on the Common Law Admission Test [CLAT]) 6. Changemakers, Times of India, 2nd November 2011 (on legal education) 7. IDIA, Bar and Bench, May 5, 2010 (discussing IDIA project and access to education) 8. Access to Education, India Law Journal, June 2010 (discussing access to legal education) 9. Encourage Innovation with Holistic Approach The Hindu (13 October 2008) 10. The Novartis Saga -- Prescription for Patent Strategy in India, The Hindu Business-Line (Sept 5, 2007) 11. We need to evolve our own set of distinctive intellectual property norms' The Hindu Business Line (Feb 24, 2007) 12. In Person Interview, Journal of Intellectual Property Law & Practice (2009) 4 (6): 447-448. X. PAPER PRESENTATIONS AND WORKSHOPS 1. IP and Biodiversity, Kerala Biodiversity Congress, March 2015. 2. A Tale of Two Patents, Conference by Univ of Washington and ISIL, New Delhi, Jan 2015 3. India and Trade Secrecy, WTO Public Forum on Trade Secrecy, Geneva, 1 October 2013 4. Indian IP and Innovation, "India as a Pioneer of Innovation", University of Pennsylvania Conference, November 15, 2013. 5. Opening India, Open Access and Research Conference, Queensland University of Technology (QUT), Australia, 31 October 2013, 6. IP and Biodiversity: NBA Asean Workshop, 5 th September 2012 7. Globalising Legal Education: Whither Access and Diversity? GLEE Conference, Harvard Law School, 13 April 2012. 8. Data Protection or Investment Protection? Conference by University of Pennsylvania law school and NLS, Bangalore, 17th July 2012. 9. Patents and Compulsory Licensing: A Middle Path Solution? Paper Presented at University of Washington School of Law, 30 April 2012. 10. Pharmaceutical Patent Injunctions: A Developmental Perspective, MHRD Conference at NLU Jodhpur, 17 April 2012. 11. Pharmaceutical Patents and Public Health: Paper Presented at Special Lecture Series organized by University of Kerala, 6 July 2012. 12. Towards a Paid Innovation Commons, WIPO:WTO Teachers Colloquium, Geneva, June 2011. 13. Compulsory licensing: Present Framework and Future Prospects, presentation at the CUSAT workshop on "Rethinking Intellectual Property Rights", January 2012. 14. Traditional Knowledge: From Reductionism to Holism, ATRIP Conference, Stockholm, Sweden, July 2010 15. Pharmaceutical Patent Enforcement in India: Some Thoughts for Reform, "New Spaces, New Actors and the Institutional Turn in Contemporary Intellectual Property Law", Kyushu University, Japan, February 13 and 14, 2010 16. A TK Model for India, "FICPI Indian Symposium", New Delhi, December 9-12, 2009 17. Romanticising Innovation, 5th International Forum on Creativity & Inventions - A Better Future for Humanity in the 21st Century", WIPO FICCI Conference, New Delhi, November 11-13, 2009 18. Indian IP: A Holistic View, "International Bioforum", Tokyo, July 3, 2009 19. Indian IP: An Extra Legal Perspective "IPBC Forum", Chicago, June 22, 2009 20. Indian IP: Judicial Enforcement "Training for Indian Judges", National Judicial Academy, Bhopal, September 5, 2009 21. Patent Enforcement as a Trade Barrier, "International Trade Barriers for Indian Generics", Pharmexcil, Mumbai, August 21, 2009 22. The Indian "Bayh Dole": Injection of "Public Interest", Conference by NUJS IP Chair, NUJS, Kolkata, Sept 12, 2009 23. The Drug-Patent Linkage Issue: A Transparency Solution, "Pharmaceuticals 2014: Will India Leap Forward" FICCI, Mumbai, March 18, 2009. 24. Accessing patented knowledge: Compulsory license under Competition law, "Patents and Platform Technologies: R&D in Malaria and Tuberculosis", Centad, New Delhi, September 9, 2009 25. FOSS: Decoding the Law, IOTA Free Technology Convention, Science Auditorium, Kolkata, 27 th January 2009. 26. Collaborative Innovation in IP Policy Making, "Collaborative Innovation for Development: Enlarging the Global Commons" (Knowledge Commons, New Delhi, 6th December 2008) 27. Indian Patent Law and TRIPS: From Gripping to Tripping, "1st Annual National Law School of India Review Symposium on Challenges to India's Patent Regime" (National Law School of India University, Bangalore 12 April 2008). 28. "From Faith Based IP to Fact Based IP", Symposium on Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) to celebrate World Intellectual Property Day, (OPPI, New Delhi, April 25th 2008). 29. Indian Patent Law and its Tryst with TRIPS, EGA 4th legal Forum (Brussels, Jan 30, 2008) 30. "Mobilizing Governments for A2K", Moderator, Access to Knowledge (A2K) Conference (Yale Law School, April 2007). 31. Impact of US Patent Reform on Indian Firms, USIACC panel on Patent Law Reform (Washington, 5 September 2007) 32. Patents and Innovation in India, National Academy of Sciences (Washington DC, 24 Sept 2007) 33. History of the Indian Patent System, "Patent Rights in India & China", (IPO Education Foundation, June 11, 2007, Washington) 34. Are Pharmaceutical Inventions a Special Class: Invited Speaker by the University of Augsburg (Germany, 20 July 2007) 35. Factoring in the Technologically Proficient Developing Countries, Strategies to Implement a WIPO Development Agenda , EDGE Network, (Vancouver 15 October 2007) 36. India's New Patent Regime: TRIPS Implications, First speaker (Program at IP on Speaker Series Information organised Justice and by PIJIP Intellectual Property) (American University, Washington, April 19 th, 2007). 37. Schizophrenia in Indian IP Policy? Invited Speaker to panel on "India, IP Developments and TRIPS" at the 15th Annual Fordham Conference on Intellectual Property Law Policy (Fordham, New York, April 12, 2007). 38. Indian Generics: Future IP Strategies "US-India Partnerships in Drug Discovery and Generics" (Asia Society: Observer Foundation, New York, 20 November 2007). 39. Bridging IP Conference Disputes: to Towards Commemorate a World "Middle IP Path" Day (IPI, Washington, 26 April 2007) 40. Enforcement of Patents in India: The Likely Scenario, American Society of International Law event on IP (GW, Washington, 27 March 2007) 41. Patents and Access to Medicines Invited panelist by UNDP to workshop titled 'Access to Treatment for HIV/AIDS in Arab States (Cairo, 17 November 2005). 42. Impact of India's Patent Amendment on the Pharmaceutical Industry 'Invited Speaker to a workshop by SIPLA at Franklin Pierce Law Centre (Concorde, 20 October 2005). 43. Unblocking Invited Gene speaker Patents: by the An Antitrust Shandong Approach University of Technology (Zibo, China 24 September 2005). 44. Genes as Essential Facilities: An Antitrust Approach, 'CLASF Conference' (London September 2004). 45. Creativity and Human Society 'Queen Mary ESRC Research Seminar Series' 29-30 November 2004, London (Invited Panelist) 46. Block Me Not: Genes as Essential Facilities 'Fifth Asian Bioethics Conference (ABC5)' (Tsukuba, Japan 13-16 February 2004). 47. Patenting Research Tools in Human Genome Studies: View from a Technologically Proficient Developing Country (Joint Presentation with Ms. Sivaramjani Thambisetti, University of Cambridge April 2003). 48. IT laws: A Practitioner's Perspective 'Indian Institute of Management (IIM)' (Bangalore 14 December 2001). 49. Convergence: Legal Issues 'International Conference on International Law in the New Millennium: Problems and Challenges ahead' Organised by Indian Society of International Law (New Delhi 4-7 October 2001). 50. Copyright Issues on the Internet 'National Seminar on Copyrights and Related Rights' Organised by the Copyright Office, Ministry of Human Resource Development (Kottayam, Kerala 12 February, 2001). 51. Dispute Resolution Mechanism in Cyberspace 'National Seminar on Challenges of Internet Law' Organised by the Indian law Institute (Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi 4 March 2001). XI. CONFERENCES (ORGANISATION) 1. Organised a Workshop on IP Teaching Methodology along with University of Washington School of Law and NLU Delhi: Jan 2014, March 2013 and March 2012 2. Organised several IP conferences at WB NUJS (themes include 2012 copyright amendments (November 2012) and Indian "Bayh Dole" Bill (September 2009)). 3. Organised an International Conference on "Innovation, Creativity and IP Policy" with the Max Planck Institute, Munich: November 19-20, 2010 X1I. OTHERS Public Interest Cases (Illustrative list) 1. Filed a Public Interest Litigation before the Delhi High Court in July 2014 arguing that the RTI must be given pre-eminence over all other statutes when it comes to information dispensation to the public. 2. Intervened in a copyright law suit as part of a group of academics (SPEAK) interested in furthering access to education. This law suit was filed by OUP and other leading publishers against Delhi University for copyright infringement in creating course packs. 3. Filed a Writ Petition before the Gujarat High Court on behalf of an underprivileged student who was denied admission to GNLU on an arbitrary ground. 4. Represented Missing Seamen on Board an Iranian Ship. 5. Filed a Writ Petition Against the Government of India, challenging the constitutionality of the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB). Court ruled in our favour striking down key aspects of IPAB selection process. 6. Was academic intervenor cum amicus before Supreme Court in landmark patent case, Novartis vs Union of India, where court relied significantly on arguments advanced in its final decision. 7. Investigated the extent of working of pharmaceutical patents in India Filed RTI's to determine the extent of "working" of pharmaceutical patents in India. Compiled report and presented to Controller General Kurian. As a result of this investigation, the government has now made all working statements publicly available. Parliamentary Depositions (Illustrative list) 1. Was invited as an expert witness before Parliamentary Standing Committee dealing the Indian "Bayh Dole" Bill (appeared before them twice in March 2010) 2. Was invited as an expert witness before Parliamentary Standing Committee dealing with Indian Copyright Act (Amendment) Bill (appeared before them in May 2010) Government Advisory Advising various government agencies from time to time on intellectual property advisory issues, such as the Ministry of Commerce (DIPP), HRD Ministry (copyright office), the National Biodiversity Authority, Department of Science and Technology. In particular, was part of a team that helped revamp the Indian Patent Agent Exam. ANNEXURE P-2 MEMORANDUM OF UNDERSTANDING WHEREAS, the National University, Bangalore Law School (hereinafter of referred India to as NLSU), the National Academy of Legal Studies and Research University NALSAR), the (hereinafter National Law referred Institute to as University, Bhopal (hereinafter referred to as NLIU), the National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata (hereinafter referred to as NUJS), the National Law University, Jodhpur*(hereinafter Hidayatullah referred National Law to as University NLU), the (hereinafter referred to as HNLU) and the Gujarat National Law University, Gandhi Nagar (hereinafter referred to as GNLU) have been incorporated by the State Legislatures of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh and Gujarat respectively; AND WHEREAS the aforesaid universities, which have been established for the purpose of teaching, extension, research, and for the grant of Degrees and other awards in the discipline of Law, are commonly referred to as the National Law Universities; National Law University; Jodhpur will be governed by the MoU subject to grant of recognition under Section 12 (b) of the UGC. * AND FURTHER WHEREAS, the National Law Universities admit students to Five Year Integrated law programmes leading to the award of Bachelor's Degree in Law on the basis of All India entrance tests conducted by each university, there by requiring candidates seeking admission in them to appear in multiple entrance tests; AND WHEREAS, more National Law Universities are likely to be established, which may lead to unavoidable overlap of dates of entrance tests and also require candidates to purchase several admission forms and other documents; And Whereas, the aforesaid seven National Law Universities, with the approval of the appropriate authority competent to so decide under the provisions of the respective Act of Legislature under which each university has been incorporated, have decided to to enter in to a Memorandum of Understanding for conducting a common entrance test for admission to the Five Year Integrated law Degree programme being conducted university, and for matter allied thereto. by each NOW THEREFORE, Understanding between (hereinafter the Universities, this aforesaid hereinafter Memorandum referred seven to of as MoU) National Law referred to as the participating universities, represented by their ViceChancellors (or Directors as the case may be), whose signatures are appended hereunder, do hereby solemnly agree to the following actions in order to support and achieve the objective of conducting a common entrance test :1) The common law entrance test shall be known as the "Common Law Admission Test" (CLAT), for admission to the participating universities in their Five Year Integrated programmes of study in law, known variously as B.A.;LL.B. (Hons.), B.Sc.; LL.B. (Hons.); B.Com.;LL.B. (Hons.) or any other nomenclature recognized by the Bar Council of India and the University Grants Commission (UGC) as being equivalent to a Bachelor's degree in law. 2) The CLAT shall be conducted every year by rotation by each of the seven National Law Universities beginning with the oldest one among them. 3) CLAT 2008 which shall be conducted for the first year under this MoU shall be conducted by the NLSU**; and in the second year by the NALSAR, in ** If for any reason NLSU, Bangalore is unable to hold the test for 2008, then NALSAR, the third year by the NLIU, in the fourth year by the NUJS, in the fifth year by the NLU, in the sixth year by the HNLU, in the seventh year by the GNLU, and so on. 4) The University conducting CLAT in any year shall be known as the Organizing University for that year. 5) There shall be a committee, to be known as the Core Committee for CLAT (CC_CLAT), for the purpose of deciding and prescribing all policies in respect of the CLAT. The CC_CLAT shall also monitor, at such intervals as may be decided by it, the implementation of its decisions. The functions of the CC_CLAT shall, without prejudice to any other matter(s) that the Committee may decide to include in its functioning, the following: a. Distribution of Income (including tranfer of and funds) Expenditure incurred in conducting the CLAT for that year; b. Decide the date of the CLAT; c. Format of the CLAT; d. Approve the syllabus for CLAT; e. Prescribe the qualifying marks (score) for the different categories of candidates such as the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (OBCs), Candidates with disabilities, Hyderabad will hold it. and others; f. Demarcate geographical boundaries among the participating universities for the purpose of logistics and other arrangements of CLAT; g. Approving the quantum of honoraria to be paid for various CLAT related activities; h. Prepare a report on behalf of the outgoing Convenor for the incoming Convenor; i. Prescribe statistical reports on the various aspects of CLAT; j. Oversee the functioning of the committee; 6) The Vice Chancellors of the seven participating National Law membership Universities of the shall CC_CLAT; constitute and, the the Vice- Chancellor of the Organizing University shall be its Convenor thanhalf and the shall chair membership its of meetings. Vice More Chancellors, present personally, shall constitute the quorum for the meetings of the Committee. The CC-CLAT shall be competent to invite not more than two persons to each meeting of the Committee, who in its opinion may make useful contribution for the transaction of its business. Provided that, the invited person shall not have the power to vote on any decision or resolution of the Committee. 7) The CC_CLAT shall meet as many times as may be required at the venue(s) as may be decided by the Convenor, and shall prescribe the rules of business, procedure and manner of conducting its own meetings, other than the quorum referred to in the clause above. 8) There shall be a committee to implement the decisions of the CC_CLAT, which shall be known as the Implementation Committee for CLAT (IC_CLAT). 9) The Convenor of CC_CLAT in any year shall be the Chairperson of the IC_CLAT for that year, and a nominee each of the seven Vice Chancellors shall be its members. In addition, the Chairperson may nominate one person from the Organizing University to serve as a convenor, who shall however not be a member of the IC-CLAT. 10) The IC_CLAT shall be competent to decided on prescribing the rules of conduct of its business and procedure for its meetings. The IC-CLAT shall meet as often as may be required to implement all aspects of conducting the CLAT. 11) Without prejudice to the power of CC_CLAT to assign to the Implementation Committee any function in respect of the CLAT, the IC_CLAT shall be responsible for the following functions: a. Preparing the agenda for meetings of the CC_CLAT; b. Taking all steps in regard to non-confidential operations, namely: i. Advertisements in regard to the CLAT in the print media and through press releases ii. Designing, printing and publishing information brochure iii. Selecting of vendors for printing and scanning applications iv. Preparing agreements with banks for the sale of application forms and other documents v. Fixing test centres in accordance with capacity and demand vi. Liaison and with other participating institutions geographical in distribution institutions respect of of logistics related work vii. Elimination of duplicate applications, if any viii. Allotment of Registration Numbers and printing of Admit Cards ix. Preparing guidelines and instructions to be observed by candidates and the test centres x. Preparing guidelines and instructions for representatives, presiding officers and invigilators xi. Declaration of results of CLAT xii. Preparing brochures for counselling, admission forms, option forms, health certificates c. Taking all necessary steps in regard to confidential operations pertaining to CLAT, which may inter alia include: i. Preparing guidelines for paper setters ii. Selection of teams of paper setters from the seven participating universities iii. Randomizing the choice of paper-setters and deciding on the time and place of simultaneous paper-setting exercise iv. Ensuring confidentiality and secrecy in each aspect of work involved in papersetting v. Delivery papers of to sealed the envelopes of safe custody of the the Chairperson of the IC_CLAT vi. Selection of the security printing press vii. Handing over the sealed packet of set paper viii. Proof -reading arrangements, random checks, packing and transportation ix. The Chairperson shall be responsible personally for the despatch of the sealed boxes of sealed question paper and answer books to the Vice Chancellor or his nominee on the IC-CLAT x. Coding of ORS Sheets, Answer Books, Question-Papers; and finalizing instructions for Coders - codes to be provided by the Chairperson of the IC_CLAT and to be known only to the Chairperson xi. Freezing of solutions or answers xii. Evaluation once or double as the case may be xiii. Tabulation of results and preparation of merit list in coded form xiv. Chairperson hands over keys and solutions/answers 12) The pricing of the brochure/application form for CLAT shall be as may be decided by CC_CLAT each year, taking in to consideration the fact that in any given year six of the seven participating universities shall be foregoing revenues accruing to them on the sale of the respective application form. Further, at present every candidate has to buy more than one application form for admission to the programme of study in the participating universities and therefore the CLAT would result in saving on purchase of multiple application forms. In the first year, the application form for CLAT 2008 shall be priced as Rs. 2000 (two thousand only). The proceeds(revenues) from the sale of application forms and brochures shall be shared in the following manner: a. 50% of the proceeds shall be retained by the Organizing University for meeting the expenditure on conducting CLAT b. the remaining 50% of the proceeds shall be divided equally among the participating universities. 13) Each participating university shall be entitled to an equal share from out of revenue accruing on account of release of CLAT score to institutions and universities other than the participating universities. For CLAT 2008, a fee of Rs. 1000 (One thousand only) shall levied. The CC_CLAT shall be competent to revise the fee for release of scorecard from time to time. 14) National Law Universities, other than the participating universities, may be invited to the CC_CLAT to avail the score cards of CLAT or to assist in the logistics and management of test centres on such terms and conditions as may be mutually decided between each such National Law University and the CC_CLAT. Convenor, CC_CLAT shall be empowered to negotiate on behalf of the participating universities with such other National Law Universities. This Memorandum of Understanding has been entered into this on this 23rd November of 2007 by each of the participating universities acting through their Vice Chancellors (Directors) whose signatures Are affixed below. 1. (For and On Behalf of the NLSU) 2. (For and On Behalf of the NALSAR) 3. (For and On Behalf of the NLIU) 4. (For and On Behalf of the NUJS) 5. (For and On Behalf of the NLU) HNLU) 7. (For and On Behalf of the GNLU) 6. (For and On Behalf of the In witness thereof: (For and On Behalf of the University Grants Commission) (For and On Behalf of the Ministry of H.R.D. Govt. Of India) (For and On Behalf of the Bar Council of India) ANNEXURE P-3 Legally India, July 6, 2015 Multi-crore CLAT agreement with 13 other NLUs is so secret it's exempt from RTI, claims RMLNLU By Prachi Shrivastava Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2015 convenor RMLNLU Lucknow claimed secrecy for the three CLAT memorandums of understanding (MoU) signed between national law universities (NLU) since 2007. The convenor with a letter dated 1 July rejected a Right to Information (RTI) request dated 10 June 2015, which was filed by the Increasing Diversity by Increasing Access (IDIA) scheme, asking for a copy each of the MoU signed between seven NLUs on 23 November 2007, and the MoUs signed between 14 NLUs in 2014 and on 10 May 2015. The convenor, via RMLNLU joint registrar Dr JD Gangwar, rejected the request stating that the information was exempt from disclosure under "Section 8(e)" of the RTI Act 2005. There is no Section 8(e) under the Act, however Section 8, which lists the exemptions permitted under the Act, provides in its clause (1)(e) that: Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, there shall be no obligation to give any citizen information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information As reported last month in Mint and Legally India, this year's CLAT is likely to generate at least Rs 16 crore, of which half would go to RMLNLU after deducting the expenses of holding the CLAT. In 2012 Nalsar Hyderabad had responded to an RTI filed by Legally India that under the 23 November 2007 MoU, India's first seven NLUs had agreed to discontinue their separate law entrance tests from the year 2008 onwards and admit students through the CLAT, which was to be conducted by each of the seven signatories by rotation each year. RMLNLU Lucknow, which was not in existence in 2007 and therefore not a signatory to the 2007 MoU, could not have conducted CLAT under its terms. Since by 2014 each of the seven signatories had convened CLAT once, a new MoU was entered into between 14 NLUs to enable the newer NLUs to convene the CLAT, as reported by Legally India in November 2014. RMLNLU vice chancellor Prof Gurdip Singh had told Legally India that the new MoU, among other things, spelled out the terms under which a new law university could be admitted to the CLAT. Gangwar, who in an interview with Legally India in June had claimed the convenor was committed to transparency, was not reachable for comment by phone and messages today. The same RTI was sent to NLSIU Bangalore and Nalsar Hyderabad; no response has yet been received. ANNEXURE P-4 Date: 10.06.2015 To, Mr. J. D. Gangwar, Joint Registrar (Designated PIO), Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University, Sec- D1, LDA Colony, Kanpur Road Scheme, Lucknow - 226012. Respected Sir, Sub: Application for Information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 Under the mandate of Section 6 of the Right to Information Act, 2005, it is requested that the following public documents be provided to the applicant at the earliest: 1. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed on 23.11.2007, by National Law Institute University, Bhopal; West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata; National Law School of India University, Bengaluru; National Academy of Legal Studies and Research, Hyderabad; Hidayatullah National Law University, Raipur; Gujarat National Law University, Gandhinagar; and National Law University, Jodhpur. 2. Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed in 2014 by National Law School of India University, Bangalore, National Academy for Legal Studies and Research University, Hyderabad; West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata; National Law Institute University, Bhopal; National Law University, Jodhpur; Rajiv Gandhi National University University, of Law, Patiala; Raipur; Gujarat Gandhinagar; Dr. Ram Hidayatullah National Manohar National Law Lohia Law University, National Law University, Lucknow; Chanakya National Law University, Patna; National University of Advanced Legal Studies, Kochi; National University of Study and Research in Law, Ranchi; National Law University, Orissa, Cuttack; and National Law University & Judicial Academy, Assam, Guwahati. 3. Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed on 10.05.2015 by National Law School of India University, Bangalore, National Academy for Legal Studies and Research University, Hyderabad; West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata; National Law Institute University, Bhopal; National Law University, Jodhpur; Rajiv Gandhi National University of Law, Patiala; Hidayatullah National Law University, Raipur; Gujarat National Law University, Gandhinagar; Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia National Law University, Lucknow; Chanakya National Law University, Patna; National University of Advanced Legal Studies, Kochi; National University of Study and Research in Law, Ranchi; National Law University, Orissa, Cuttack; and National Law University & Judicial Academy, Assam, Guwahati. Please provide the below mentioned applicant with complete information in relation to the movement of the present RTI. A postal order for Rs. 10/ is enclosed. Please provide the information by sending true copies of the relevant documents by post at the applicant's address as mentioned herein below. I look forward to a prompt and elaborate response. Yours Sincerely, Gagana N.V., IDIA, 45, Jubilee Building, Museum Road, Bangalore - 560025 ANNEXURE P-5 No.: 735-15 NLULko/Admin-I-2/2015/Gagana N.V. Dated: 01 July, 2015 To, Gagana N.V., IDIA, 45, Jubilee Building, Museum Road, BANGALORE-560 025 Sub: Seeking information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 Sir/Madam, Kindly refer to your letter dated 10.06.2015 regarding seeking information under the Right to Information Act, 2005. The information is given below: S.No. Information Sought 1 The Memorandum Informatio of n Understanding Informatio (MoU) signed on 23.11.2007, by National n cannot Law Institute University, Bhopal; West be Bengal National University of Juridical provided Sciences, Kolkata; National Law School as it falls of India University, Bengaluru; National under Academy of Legal Studies and Research, section Hyderabad; Hidayatullah National Law 8(e) of the 2 University, Raipur; Gujarat National Law RTI Act, University, Gandhinagar; and National 2005. Law University, Jodhpur. Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed in 2014 by National Law School of India University, Bangalore, National Academy for Legal Studies and Research University, Hyderabad; West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata; National Law Institute University, Bhopal; National University, Jodhpur; Rajiv National University of Law, Law Gandhi Patiala; Hidayatullah National Law University, Raipur; Gujarat National Law University, Gandhinagar; Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia National Chanakya Law University, National Law Lucknow; University, Patna; National University of Advanced Legal Studies, Kochi; National University of Study and Research in Law, Ranchi; National Law University, Orissa, Cuttack; and National Law University & Judicial Academy, Assam, Guwahati. Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed on 10.05.2015 by National Law School of India University, Bangalore, National Academy for Legal Studies and Research University, Hyderabad; West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata; National Law Institute University, Bhopal; National University, Jodhpur; Rajiv National 3 University of Law, Law Gandhi Patiala; Hidayatullah National Law University, Raipur; Gujarat National Law University, Gandhinagar; Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia National Chanakya Law University, National Law Lucknow; University, Patna; National University of Advanced Legal Studies, Kochi; National University of Study and Research in Law, Ranchi; National Law University, Orissa, Cuttack; and National Law University & Judicial Academy, Assam, Guwahati. (Dr. J.D. Gangwar) Public Information Officer ANNEXURE P-6 Mint & Legally India, June 16, 2015 CLAT: A filter that needs replacing By Kian Gianz This year's entrance exam has landed in controversy and faces at least one writ petition in court The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT), key for entry into 16 national law schools, attracted a record 37,358 applicants this year--a 20% increase over 2014. The exam began promisingly, with convenor Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University (RMLNLU), Lucknow, introducing electronic testing and running a transparent CLAT, communicating with candidates and the media about plans and progress. It ended up as one of the most controversial CLATs in recent years, rivalling the 2009 exam conducted by Nalsar University of Law, Hyderabad, which had to be postponed after a suspected leak of question papers. CLAT 2015 now faces at least one writ petition in the Rajasthan high court, filed by one applicant who appears to have the support of thousands of candidates and their parents. The biggest problem alleged by the writ petition, corroborated by common sense, a myriad candidates and professional CLAT coaches, is that several official answers to the CLAT questions are obviously incorrect; several other questions are simply unanswerable. The writ petition claims that 15 questions are still incorrect despite RMLNLU having grudgingly agreed to correct two wrong questions after evaluation by an expert committee. For instance, one question vaguely asks candidates to pick the "world's largest e-commerce company" from between Amazon and Alibaba, which respectively hold the record for the largest revenue and market value. Four questions rely on complex logic and a mathematical puzzle contains a typo, making it unsolvable. Another question that requires solving a secret letter-substitution code is also unsolvable because one letter is missing. Worse, these and many other questions were all copied from various websites, which all bizarrely provided the correct answers although somehow the CLAT committee managed to introduce its glaring typos during the copy-paste process. It is easy to understand the exasperation of law school aspirants, who often spend a year or longer preparing for the test. Consider the stress inherent in making 18- and 19-year-olds take a 120-minute exam of 200 questions (leaving exactly 36 seconds per question), which penalizes wrong answers with negative marks and where you know that a single wrong answer can make the difference between getting into your preferred college and missing out on it. Candidates this year competed against each other for only 1,069 seats at the 16 national law schools, excluding reservations. In 2014, a difference of only 3-4 points would result in a 100 place drop in the all-India rank (AIR) list after the 200th rank, with each college on average being able to admit 100 or fewer new students per year. This year the margins were even smaller, and a difference of only 8.5 points separated the 500th rank from the 1,000th. Due to the severe time constraints, candidates are never really able to attempt all questions in CLAT, but if a candidate was unlucky enough this year to get stuck on a question that did not have a single or any correct answer, each minute wasted on such a question would easily equal a lost point (and with it a drop of 25-60 ranks outside the top 200). Even more hard-done-by will be those students who managed to figure out the correct answer to a question, which does not correspond to the 'official' answer that is blatantly wrong. That's if they managed not to get distracted by the numerous typographical errors. Further, 135 out of 200 questions were allegedly copied from websites or previous exams, and 27 questions were copypasted from a single website with mock questions, which means candidates who happened to have studied model questions on that website had a massive and unfair advantage over their peers. None of the above can be reasonably prepared for and that, in turn, dents CLAT's credibility to act as a filter for the brightest and most capable students to enter the national law schools. "The admissions test is one of the key reasons behind the success of the NLU model. The fact that you've had this rigorous exam filter for picking bright school kids. All other deficiencies, such as the lack of a serious research culture, top-notch faculty, barring a few; and lack of good infrastructure and other resources were by and large forgiven because you had this relatively fine bunch of students who were offered some freedom to engage in peer learning and strut their stuff," said Shamnad Basheer, who formerly taught at National University of Juridical Sciences (NUJS), Kolkata, and founded the Increasing Diversity by Increasing Access initiative. "Now if you're hitting at the very filter that made the NLUs what they are, you have a serious problem that you need to address ASAP." One way of addressing the perception of unfairness could be fairly easily achieved by CLAT convenors by correcting obviously wrong official answers , awarding the proper points and cancelling questions that are obviously unanswerable. RMLNLU, other than correcting two questions after a review by the expert committee, which delayed the first set of results, has so far resisted any further adjustments to its model answers. Joint registrar J.D. Gangwar, who has been overseeing the CLAT this year, did not respond to messages seeking comment. Structurally unsound The malaise that besets CLAT is actually more systemic than just this year's paper. The exam was launched in 2008 after a legal challenge in 2006 against each national law school running its own admissions test, which put an unreasonable burden on applicants who would have to pay for and take a separate entrance exam for each national law school they wanted to apply for. The CLAT system that was hammered out by the seven NLU vice-chancellors under the supervision of then chief justice of India (CJI) K.G. Balakrishnan, resulted in a rotating system, where every year the test would be conducted by a different law school in the order of the year of its establishment. This year was the first time that the CLAT went to a law school that was not part of the original seven, which required an amendment to the original understanding (MoU) last year. CLAT memorandum of "Whether it (the CLAT) should go around to different universities without any experience, that is questionable," says N.R. Madhava Menon, who in 1980 started the National Law School of India University (NLSIU), Bengaluru--India's first and continuing flagship national law university-- followed by NUJS Kolkata and the National Judicial Academy, Bhopal. What happens under CLAT at the moment is that each year the convening college has to re-invent the wheel anew and figure out how to hold a national competitive exam, from handling the flood of applications, dealing with candidates' questions and collecting fees to setting question papers-- they have to do all this on top of running a law school. "Once you give it to another university, they start it all over again and nobody else take much interest in it," agrees Menon. And while NLUs that have held CLATs previously do guide and provide advice to a first-timer, and they all have vested interests in a successful CLAT brand, their support is limited. "The universities do not take interest when it is not their responsibility," says Menon. "When somebody organizing, all the blame goes to that law school." else is But with the potential for blame also comes the potential for glory. Under the CLAT MoU, the convening university gets rewarded for its efforts with 50% of whatever money is left over after deducting the costs for convening the CLAT. The other CLAT colleges equally share the other 50%. At Rs.3,500-4,000 per examinee, CLAT revenue this year could come to Rs.16.2 crore from fees alone, and that excludes the money made by selling the CLAT rank-list to some or all of nine non-national law schools that use CLAT scores for admitting students, too. According to a variety of financial accounts proactively disclosed by colleges or obtained by Legally India under the Right to Information Act, each non-convening college received the following amounts: Rs.17.4 lakh in 2008 (in NLSIU Bengaluru's CLAT); Rs.25 lakh in 2009 (from Nalsar); Rs.21.9 lakh in 2010 (from National Law Institute University, Bhopal); and Rs.22 lakh in 2011 (from NUJS, Kolkata). The convening college in those years could have then earned Rs.1-2 crore or more. The need for a college to cover its costs, therefore, almost certainly takes some options off the table, such as holding a new exam, which would prove prohibitively expensive. And possibly that's also a reason for why RMLNLU is not revisiting more questions: a 200-question exam where nearly 10% of answers are allegedly wrong, runs the risk of delay and interference from the courts, with judges potentially deciding that fairness would best be served by a re-test. RMLNLU's Gangwar did not respond to a message seeking to confirm the current CLAT's financials and about whether the model answers to the question paper would be re-evaluated. Menon and Basheer both recommend that future CLATs should be held by a permanent common secretariat, set up by all the NLUs, which can act as a repository of experience and lessons learnt from previous CLATs. To be sure, if such a proposal were implemented, it would be no guarantee that every future CLAT will be smooth. But at least accountability and experience would be centralized, which reformers and many students argue would be a welcome change. ANNEXURE P-7 IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE AT BOMBAY ORDINARY ORIGINAL CIVIL JURISDICTION WRIT PETITION (LODGING) NO. 1784 OF 2015 Mr. Subham Dutt, S/o. Mr. Sanjiv Dutt, Aged 18 Years, of Mumbai Indian Inhabitant, residing at A-21, Income Tax Colony, Peddar Road, Mumbai-400026. ....Petitioner. Vs. 1 The Convenor, CLAT 2015 (UG) Exam, Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University, Sector-D-1, LDA Colony, Kanpur Road Scheme, Lucknow-226012. 2 The Union of India, Through their Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Human Resource Development, Shastri Bhawan, Dr. Rajendra Prasad Road, New Delhi. 3 The All India Council for Technical Education, Through the Regional Officer and Director, Western Region 2nd Floor, Industrial Assurance Building, V.N. Road, Opp. Churchgate, Railway Station, Churchgate 400020. Mr. Mumbai- ....Respondents. Kevic Thorat, Ms. Setalvad, Sr. Advocate with Mr. V.M. Pooja Thorat, Mr Sumit Patni i/b Mr. Som Shankar Sinha, for the Petitioner. Mr. Ravi Sancheti Kadam, and Sr. Advocate with Mr. Rishabh Mr. Satish Upadhyay and Mr. Abhay Itagi i/b M. V. Kini & Company for Respondent No. 1. Mr. Dushyant Kumar, Advocate for Respondent No. 2. Mr. Mihir Desai, Sr. Advocate for Respondent No. 3. CORAM : ANOOP V. MOHTA AND V.L.ACHLIYA, JJ. DATE : 2 JULY 2015. ORAL JUDGMENT (PER ANOOP V. MOHTA, J.):Rule. Rule made returnable forthwith. Heard finally by consent of the parties. 2 The Petitioner has prayed as under:"a) and ......to correct the model answers re-assess the Impugned Results dated 20th May 2015 on the basis of the corrected model answers; b) .....to allot all the students seats on the basis of marks/rankings as determined post re-assessment of the Impugned Results dated 20th May, 2015. c) .....thereby directing the Respondent No.1 to re- assess the entire answer sheets of all the students appearing for the CLAT, 2015 examinations on the basis of the correct model answers; d) .....direction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India thereby directing the Respondent No.1 to re- assess the entire answer sheets on the basis of the correct model answers and award One mark each to all those students who have attempted these disputed questions or in the alternative direct that the disputed questions should not be considered while computing the ranking or the markings and while allotting the seats in the institutions participating in CLAT, 2015; e) That pending the hearing and final disposal of this Petition the Respondent No.1 be injuncted from issuing the 3rd allotment list i.e. 21st June, 2015. f) That pending the hearing and final disposal of the Petition, this Hon'ble Court stay the operation of the impugned results dated 20th May, 2015; g) That pending the hearing and final disposal of the Petition, the Petitioner and other similarly placed students (whomsoever has attempted these questions) be awarded 1 mark each for attempting these questions. h) That pending the hearing and final disposal of the Petition, the Respondent No.1 be directed not to consider these questions during the process of allotment of seats in the institutions as preferred by these students. i) That pending the hearing and final disposal of the Petition, the Respondent No.1 and all the participating institutions be restrained from allotting all the seats. j) That pending the hearing and final disposal of the Petition, the Respondent No.1. and all the institutions participating in CLAT, 2015 be directed to keep at least 15 seats as a provision for post reassessment changes in the markings and the rankings of the students." 3 The basic events are as under:- The Petitioner is aged 18 years, residing at the address mentioned in the cause title of the Petition. The Petitioner is a student who has just cleared his Class XII board examinations by a score of 94.15% under the Maharashtra Higher Secondary State Board. The Petitioner has given examination of Common Law Admission Test, 2015 (for short, "CLAT-2015") to pursue his aspiration in one of the National Law Universities. The Petitioner has secured a rank 278 in the CLAT-2015. Results declared on 20 May 2015 and thereafter revised. 4 Respondent No.1 has conducted the CLAT examinations in the country for the year 2015. Respondent No.2 is the Union of India. The role of this Respondent (CLAT) is quite limited. Their expertise on the subject/topic/field is also limited, on the basis of which compulsory 200 objective questions and key answers were prepared and announced, so also the self study kit. 5 CLAT is a non-statutory body created for the convenience of the students seeking admission to the various National Law Universities in the country under Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). An entrance test is conducted to provide a list of candidates on the basis of 'merit-cum-preference' to each University for admission to their UG/PG programs, as per the qualifications, reservation and other conditions laid down under the respective statutes of the participating Universities. CLAT is an all India entrance examination conducted on rotation by 16 National Law Universities for admissions to their UG and PG programmes (LLB and LLM). 6 On 24 December 2014, on 25 December 2014, Respondent No.1 issued the First Admission Notification, thereby calling upon the Law aspirants to make applications for pursuing the Higher education in the National Law Schools covered under CLAT-2015. On 1 January 2015, Respondent No.1 started accepting the Online application forms for CLAT-2015. 15 April 2015 was the last date for submission of the Online application. On 19 April 2015, the Admit cards / Hall tickets were made available to the Petitioner thereby, confirming the date of examination. 10 May 2015 was the date of examination. On 20 May 2015, the Results i.e. Merit list (category-wise) along with the notice to the candidates for indicating their choices of university preferences using online candidate portal was published. Respondent No.1 along with the marksheet had also issued a Model Answer sheet on the basis of which the Corrections/marking/checking of the Answer sheets has been done. The Petitioner scored 102.5 and had secured a rank 258. 7 The Petitioner, on perusal of the Model Answer paper realized that there were several questions which have been answered incorrectly in the Model Answer sheet and on the basis of these incorrect answer the corrections/marking/checking of the Answer sheet has been done. The impact of the same is that the Answers which were given by the Petitioner have been unfortunately been considered as a wrong answer to the question and a negative mark of (-0.25) has been allotted which instead could have been (+1). The Students were supposed to indicate the University wise preference on the basis of Meritcum-preference which would be used as criteria for allocating the seats. 8 On 6 June 2015, Respondent No.1 issued a Notification. On the basis of the Notification, the Petitioner's rank fell from 258 to 278. On 9 June 2015, Respondent No.1 published its first 1 st indicative seat allocation list. On 10 June 2015, the Petitioner filed its representation before Respondent No.1, setting out the details of the grievance along with the proper references and the reasoning and thereby requested to consider the same at the earliest. The grievance of the Petitioner is in respect to the findings of Respondent No.1 in terms of questions id no. 1730, 1708, 1733, 1828, 1836, 1826 and 1882. 9 Admittedly, the Petitioner was heard on 15 June 2015 by the Respondents' Expert, but not dealt with any of the question in detail with reference to the material referred and relied as recorded in the documents/chart dated 10 June 2015, marked "X" on this record. CLAT proceeded further and has been announcing the results. 10 One Mr. Anand A. Nair, resident of Kerala filed a Writ Petition bearing No. WP(C). No.17817 of 2015 before the Hon'ble Kerala High Court at Ernakulam, against Respondent No.1 herein and other Respondents mentioned therein on the same issue. On 15 June 2015, the Hon'ble Kerala High Court at Ernakulam was pleased to direct Respondent No.1 herein to keep the issuance of 2 nd Allotment list for CLAT-2015 in abeyance for 2 weeks and issued notice to the Respondents in that Petition to appear and file their replies to the same. On 15 June 2015, Respondent No.1, as stated, in non compliance of the Order of the Hon'ble Kerala High Court, Ernakulam issued 2nd allotment list after payment of the counseling fee. The Petitioner has participated in the admission process all along and has also deposited a counseling fee of Rs.50,000/- (Rupees Fifty Thousand Only). The Petitioner has been allotted admission at the National Law University, Jodhpur. The case of the Petitioner is that because of the incorrect responses provided in the Model Answer sheet, the Petitioner has lost out 7 marks and a much improved ranking, which would enable him to get through the college of his preference as mentioned in the Allotment list. 11 The relevant subsequent events and the schedule which are necessary for further discussion are as under:- Dates for payment counseling 11 of fee: The candidates whose names have 16th-19th June, 2015 been added in 2nd provisional (Tuesday-Friday) allotment list against dropped out candidates. 12 Last Date of withdrawal from the Admission Process 19th June, 2015 (Friday) Dates for locking of allotted seats or exercising option for 13 up-gradation or for 16th-19th June, withdrawing from the (Tuesday-Friday) Admission Process 2015 against second allotment list Publication listDate of for 3rd allotment Payment 14 counseling candidates, of 21th June, fee: The (Sunday)21st-23rd whose 2015 June, names 2015 (Sunday - Tuesday) appear in 3rd allotment list. 15 Dates for admission against 24th-27th June, allotment list to be completed 2015 (Wednesday- by the participating NLU(s) Saturday) Dates for receiving details of 16 vacancies from the participating NLU(s) Publication of 4th and final 17 allotment list with up-graded and wait listed candidates up to 28th June, 2015 (Sunday) 1st July, 2015 (Wednesday) Dates for admission against 18 4th allotment list to be upto 2nd-4th July completed by the participating 2015 (Thursday-Saturday) NLU(s) 19 12 Date of closure of admission process by CLAT-2015 office 6th July, 2015 (Monday) The Petitioner filed this Writ Petition on 20 June 2015. In view of the urgency expressed, we have heard the matter and passed following orders, from time to time. On 20 June 2015:. Heard. Issue notice of final disposal to the respondents, returnable on 23rd June, 2015. 2 The petitioner after clearing his Class-12th Board examination by securing 94.15% from the Maharashtra Higher Secondary State Board, has given examination of Common Law Admission Test, 2015 ("CLAT, 2015"). Result of the same was declared on 20th May, 2015. The petitioner has secured a rank 258 in the CLAT, 2015. On 6 th June, 2015, the revised list was published and respondent No. 1 issued complaints a so notification received. because Because of of the notification, the petitioner's rank fell from 258 to 278. On 9 th June, 2015 respondent No. 1 published first indicative seat allocation list. The petitioner filed its representation / objection on 10th June, 2015 in respect of the 7 questions. No hearing was given to the petitioner by respondents. The petitioner waited for the same. 3 A petition was filed in Kerala High Court at Ernakulam on 15th June, 2015, on the basis of similar objection raised by the petitioner therein. Interim order was passed against respondent No. 1. However, as stated, in noncompliance of the same, on 15 th June, 2015 itself 2nd list was published without considering the objections so raised. The petitioner being resident of Mumbai, approached this Court on 19th June, 2015. In view of urgency so expressed by the Counsel for the petitioner, the present matter is kept today i.e. 20th June, 2015, in Chamber. 3rd list will be declared by respondent No. 1, on 21 st June, 2015. If the petitioner's objections are accepted / considered, he will be in a position to get the admission in desired college as per the procedure so announced, though the petitioner submitted fees under protest. The declaration so filed by petitioner on 21st May, 2015 is as under : "I understand that my admission shall be subject to the verification of the documents by the allotted NLU(s) in respect of my claims about eligibility and reservation, if any. I also understand that my admission in case of my age exceeding 20 years (22 years in case of SC/ST/PWD) shall be provisional and subject to final decision of the appropriate court in this matter. The respondent No. 1 has already declared that the allotment / admission shall be subject to outcome of the petition." 4. Due to heavy rain in Mumbai, the State as well as High Court of Bombay declared holiday on Friday i.e. 19th June, 2015. 20th June, 2015 was the working Saturday but due to the same reason, it has also been declared as Holiday. Therefore, in view of urgency so expressed by the learned Counsel appearing on behalf of the petitioner, the matter is kept on 20th June, 2015 in Chamber. 5. On Friday, this Court permitted the petitioner to serve copy of the petition on the contesting respondent No. 1. The statement is made that, office of respondent No. 1 has refused to accept copy of the writ petition. The petitioner undertakes to file affidavit of service by Monday. However, pursis is filed today stating therein about rejection of service by respondent No. 1. 6. Learned Counsel appearing for the petitioner took us through the averments so made including their statement referring to the 7 questions. As the other side is absent and this matter requires urgent attention of all the concerned, we are inclined to give one more opportunity to the respondents to place before us the decision on the question so raised by the petitioner. The submission is that as the averments and statements made by the petitioner are similar to the to the objection so raised in the judgments so cited (2005) 13 SCC 749 and 2002(3) Bom CR 219 and in such matters to avoid further complications, it is desirable that further proceedings referring to the final list needs to be stayed immediately. Therefore, at this stage, keeping all points open including contentions raised by the petitioner, we are inclined to keep this matter on 23rd July, 2015 (HOB) for final disposal. 7. As office is closed today, we direct the parties to act on the basis of authenticated copy / steno copy of this order. 8. Parties are at liberty to communicate this order by all possible modes in addition to regular mode of service. Hamdast is also permitted." On 23 June 2015 . This is in continuation of order dated 20 th June, 2015. 2 Considering the averments made, the name of Respondent No.3 is deleted from the array of Respondents. 2 for The learned Senior Counsel appearing Respondent No.1, on instructions, submitted that as the matter is coming for the first time, they would like to file a short affidavit referring to the averments/objections so raised regarding those seven questions. According to Respondent No.1, the Expert Body has already taken a decision even noting the objections so raised by the Petitioner and proceeded further to publish first revised allocation list on 9 th June, 2015, second list on 15 th June, 2015. Third allocation list was published on 21st June, 2015. Based upon these lists candidates so must published, have the concerned proceeded further including payment of counseling fee. The Petitioner himself paid the requisite payment after second list. 3 The learned Senior Counsel appearing for Respondent No.1 has also submitted that they would like to take appropriate steps to club all the matters pending in various High Courts including Allahabad, Rajasthan and Kerala, apart from this petition, as the issue is with regard to All India CLAT-2015 examination. 4 The Petitioner has also placed on record a chart giving reasons for correctness of chosen options with remarks and its sources. That chart is taken on record and marked 'X' for identification. 5 The learned Senior Counsel appearing for the Petitioner has submitted that a case is made to grand an interim relief at least to the extent to stay of further steps based upon the last list so published. The dates of admission against allotment list will be completed by participating NLU(s) from 24 th to 27th June, 2015. The fourth and final allotment list will be published on 1st July, 2015 and admission against fourth allotment list will be completed from 2nd to 4th July, 2015, the admission process will be closed on 6th July, 2015. 6 However, considering the averments so made and the time so taken to file present petition and the stages so crossed as recorded above and as other students/candidates must have already proceeded further based upon the lists so published, specifically first and second list, we are not inclined to grant any relief so prayed, unless we hear Respondent No.1 after the affidavit/reply, which they are filing by day after tomorrow i.e. 25th June, 2015. 7 13 The Stand over to 25th June, 2015 (HOB)". Respondents, as noted, have filed short reply/affidavit dated 25 June 2015 and expressed their submissions as under, apart from preliminary objections about the maintainability, delay and misjoinder or non-joinder and the scope of Judicial Review in such matters. "10. That the answering respondent, before adverting to the issues raised by the present Petitioner, seeks to bring the following facts to the kind notice of this Hon'ble Court:...... f. Ex-post the results, certain complaints were received including that of the present Petitioner with regard to certain questions in the exam paper. It was found that in most cases each person had complained about questions which affect her/his result individually. However keeping the larger common interest of all candidates, those questions where a dispute was raised or a complaint was received, were reconsidered by a panel of experts. For the purposes of the confidentiality of examination process, the answering respondent seeks to crave leave not to disclose the mane of the experts who reviewed those complaints, such details will be kept ready in a sealed envelope for the kind perusal of this Hon'ble Court. .... 11. Specifically with regard to the representation of the present Petitioner dated 10th of June, 2015, he chose to send it by speed post, which was received vide inward no. 1443/15 on 16.6.2015. At the same time, on 15 th June 2015 the Petitioner's father came in person and met the officials and served a copy of the representation dated 10.6.2015. 12. The Petitioner had raised dispute regarding 7 questions, out of which 3 were already re- considered by the panel of experts. Yet, to ensure fairness and due process, the four other questions were also referred to experts, who gave their opinion rejecting the objections raised by the Petitioner. Since the name of the experts cannot be revealed due to the requirement of maintaining complete confidentiality; a copy of the said proceedings will be kept ready for the kind perusal of the Hon'ble Court. ..... 13 .... a. It is submitted that all the questions which the petitioner has mentioned were, inter- alia, re-examined by experts after receiving the representations from certain candidates. b. Based upon the recommendations of the expert committee, Question No.35 (Question ID 1744) was nullified and one mark was given to all candidates who have appeared in the examination and in Question no. 186 (Question ID 1907) equal marks were given to all candidates who have chosen either of the option 'C' or 'D' as their correct option. This is duly reflected on all students individual question papers also, and is accordingly incorporated in the revised rank list. c. The experts did not find any discrepancy in any other questions." 14 After hearing the learned Senior counsel appearing for the Petitioner, to make position clear so far as the merits of the questionsso raised supported by the resources, we have passed the following order as on 25 June 2015. The matter was adjourned to 30 June 2015. No additional classificatory affidavit filed till this date. 15 On 25 June 2015, this Court has passed the following order:. "Heard learned Senior Counsel appearing on behalf of the respective parties. 2. In continuation of earlier orders dated 20th June, 2015 and 23rd June, 2015. 3. We have also gone through the files submitted by the learned Senior Counsel for respondent No. 1, including a report of the Expert Committee, as referred to in paragraph Nos. 10(f), 11 and 12 of the short affidavit filed by respondent No. 1 dated 25th June, 2015. Having perused the same, we are of the view that, at this stage, for passing any further orders, it is desirable that the concerned respondents should get the clarification from the Expert Committee referring to the objections so raised by the petitioner, supported by the resources/sources and the remarks on the pages to the petition from 128 to 133 th (representation/objections dated 10 June, 2015), which are already provided to respondent No. 1. 4. Importance of additions or deductions of marks can not be overlooked in any competitive examinations. Here as stated, there are 7 such answers, which may affect the merit of the petitioner or such other students. 5. An envelope, containing Expert Committee's recommendations given by Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University, Lucknow, is placed on record. The same is opened in the Court. We have gone through the same and again sealed it. The said envelope be kept in the custody of Prothonotary and Senior Master/Registrar (O.S.), High Court, Bombay and be made available to this Court as and when required. 6. Stand over to 30th June, 2015 (HOB). 7. Parties to act on the basis of an authenticated copy." 16 We are inclined to record now, as by single liner answers, the expert has decided the objections and retained their published key answers. We could not left the issue unanswered/unattended like this, as the process of admission itself involved, thousands of law students. Even after going through the objections and the answer keys and the supportive material placed on record, we are convinced that a case is made out for reasoned explanation/clarification. We are not convinced by the single liner order of the experts as the questions involved are of general nature and certainly not technical or complicated in nature. We are not expressing anything on merits of these objections/questions in this Writ jurisdiction. Let the Respondents' Expert Panel/Committee deal with the same in accordance with law, at their own level, by answering the objections with reasons and take further steps/actions accordingly. 17 We have noted the submissions of the learned Senior counsel appearing for the Respondents including paragraph No.16 of the affidavit referring to the following observations:"16. The answering respondent relies on the law laid down by the Hon'ble Supreme Court in 'Kanpur University-Vs- Samir Gupta reported in A.I.R. 1983 SC 1230 in paras 16 & 17: "We agree that the key answer should be assumd to be correct unless it is proved to be wrong and that it should not be held to be wrong by an inferential process of reasoning or by a process of rationalization. It must be clearly demonstrated to be wrong, that is to say, it must be such as no reasonable body of men well versed in the particular subject would regard as correct". (Para 16)." Therefore, as the case is made out, we are inclined to interfere with the examination process of CLAT-2015. 18 The learned Senior counsel appearing for Respondent No.1, expressed that they are required 3 to 4 more days to appoint Experts Panel/Committee to clarify those questions and to pass appropriate order, as some of the experts are out of India. The whole process requires at least two weeks time. They are unable to take any reasoned decision on the objections so raised immediately. The references so recorded in order dated 25 June 2015 remained unanswered with reasons, till this date. The time is short, in view of the schedule so fixed and even for further follow up by all. Considering the situation and involvement of the public at large, we had granted time, so that appropriate decision could be taken by Respondent No.1-CLAT of their own. The situation is that further time is required to file additional affidavit/clarification to the objections so raised. We are declined to grant further time, as this would definitely hamper the whole admission procedure and the prescribed time so announced for other related purposes, as 6 July 2015 is the last date even for the closure of admission process by CLAT-2015. Even if they submit the clarification/decision of 7 questions so raised, considering the judicial power and the scope, it will be difficult to take final decision to select and/or grant marks, positive and/or negative, to the questions/answers given by the Petitioner and/or the other similarly situated students and/or to revise the whole merit list. It is for the concerned Respondents to take decision after clarification and/or revaluation and/or reassessment of the questions/answers. 19 Strikingly, issues/objections there are various such have been raised in the various High Courts, including Allahabad, Keral, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. All these matters are revolving around various objections of CLAT-2015. The decision, even if any, given by the one Authority and/or one Court, it would not serve and/or solve the problems, as it is question of relying on "meritcum-preference" basis for allotting admission/seats to the respective University/college. It is for the Respondents, ultimately to take final decision in the interest of all, at the earliest. No steps taken or pointed out to club all these pending matters at one place/Court, as recorded in order dated 23 June 2015. 20 There are other questions as stated to be wrong, which are subject matter of other Petitions in other High Courts, which cannot be overlooked even by Respondent No.1's Expert Panel. Anyway, if the answers which they have announced/published are correct, they are free to take decision, which will be without prejudice to the rights and contentions of the parties. But, if the questions so raised by the Petitioner and if the issues are decided in his favour and/or in favour of such similarly situated students, there is no reason that the concerned Respondents should not decide and/or take decision to re-valuate and/or re-assess the marks and prepared the merit lists in accordance with law. 21 However, considering the scope and purpose of writ jurisdiction, the merits of those answers and further cause of action be decided and/or considered by the Respondents' Expert Panel/Committee. However, considering the totality of the matter, apart from pendency of the litigations in various other High Courts a case is made out for appropriate order. It is already recorded that all these admissions would be subject to further order of the Court. Such type of statements/declarations, as stated, are recorded for all other students also. We have granted time to the Respondents to respond immediately even on the merits of the matter. As no response is coming positively and they still want time, therefore, in the interest of justice, instead of halting the whole process, we are directing Respondent No.1-The Convenor CLAT-2015 to appoint an Expert Panel/Committee and take decision on the objections so raised in accordance with law and pass appropriate order accordingly. This in no way to mean and/or restrict the Respondents to decide the other disputable questions, so raised by the Petitioners and/or such other persons so that the appropriate final decision can be taken, basically in respect of 7 objections so raised by the Petitioner and/or for all the similarly situated persons/students to avoid multiplicity and the confusion in the mind of all, at earliest. 22 Normally, there is no question to interfere with the single liner Expert Panel/Committee decision. Therefore, instead of passing any interim order, we have asked the explanation from the Respondents, but after going through the same and after considering the submissions of the learned counsel appearing for the parties and specifically the objection so raised with supporting material, we are of the opinion that the Expert Panel/Committee must take decision with reasons so that everybody concerned will be aware of the decision so taken and/or answer so given by them and including correctness of Respondents' answer keys. 23 The submission is made by the learned Senior counsel appearing for the Petitioner, referring to the Judgments so cited above that a case is made out to pass the order to the extent of setting aside all the lists so prepared and to interfere with the whole process of the examination so conducted by CLAT-2015. However, considering the scope and purpose, including the judgments so cited and referred and as there are issues with regard to the certain questions and as the Respondents have a power and authority objections, to re-assess therefore, instead and of re-evaluate disturbing all the such whole examination process, the Expert Panel/Committee and/or the Respondent Authority may pass appropriate order for revaluation and/or re-assessment of the list, including maintaining the answer key published by them. Ultimately, it is for the Respondents Authority to take decision at the earliest to avoid further complications and the confusion in the minds of the people at large. Such confusion at this stage itself required to be corrected by all the concerned. 24 The basic issues with regard to the rights and/or entitlement of students referring to the marks, positive and/or negative, in this competitive examination is quite settled. One mark can make and/or mar the career of students of his choice, specifically when his wish and/or desire, based upon the hard-work and/or endeavour he/she has made, which needs to be respected by all. The legitimate expectation is clear that the student if has answered correctly the compulsory questions, he is entitled for the legitimate marks. The rejection and denial of such mark, if answer is correct, is definitely unacceptable to any one. We are not inclined to overlook this, in this era of competition, at entrance level of any examinations/courses. 25 The learned Senior counsel appearing for the parties have cited various Judgments for and/or against in support of their contentions. In Kanpur University, Through Vice Chancellor and others Vs. Samir Gupta and others 1, the Hon'ble Supreme Court has dealt with a situation of similar type. A multiple choice objective type test was conducted, the key answers supplied by the paper-setter were wrong. It is held that, the students is entitled to full marks if answer is correct and the correctness needs to be ascertained from standard and prescribed text-books and not merely on the basis of inferences. The issue of publication of key answers along with the result of the test was also in issue and ultimately, after accepting the candidates' case has recorded as under:"15 The findings of the High Court raise a question of great importance to the student community. Normally, one would be inclined to the view, especially if one has been a papersetter and an examiner, that the key answer furnished by the paper-setter and accepted by the University as correct, should not be allowed to be challenged. One way of achieving it is not 1 1 (1983) 4 Supreme Court Cases 309 to publish the key answer at all. If the University had not published the key answer along with the result of the test, no controversy would have arisen in this case. But that is not a correct way of looking at these matters which involve the future of hundreds of students who are aspirants for admission to professional courses. If the key answer were kept secret in this case, the remedy would have been worse than the disease because, so many students would have had to suffer the injustice in silence. The publication of the key answer has unravelled an unhappy state of affairs to which the University and the State Government must find a solution. Their sense of fairness in publishing the key answer has given them an opportunity to have a closer look at the system of examinations which they conduct. What has failed is not the computer but the human system. The Hon'ble Supreme Court ultimately, directed the Authorities to grant the benefits of the marks and also directed to admit the students to the MBBS Course. 26 In Manish Ujwal and others Vs. Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati University and others 2 the Apex Court has directed 2 (2005) 13 Supreme Court Cases 744 to give marks/reliefs whereby after noting erroneous key answers in similar type multiple choice objective test. The Supreme Court has also directed to re-evaluate all the questions to prepare merit list on the basis of corrected marks/numbers, if any. The Supreme Court has also directed to publish a fresh merit list. 27 In Guru Nanak Dev University Vs. Saumil Garg and others3 the Apex Court while dealing with the multiple choice objective type test where the key answers provided by the authority were incorrect and directed the university to reevaluate the answers of the questions so referred. The Supreme Court, ultimately has directed to give marks to the students who attempted to answer those objectionable questions. It is observed to give credit to those who attempted the objectionable questions or some of them. 28 The Division Bench of this Court in Jimmy Abraham Thomas and Ors. Vs. The State of Maharashtra and Ors. 4 by overruling the preliminary objection that disturbing any examination process , would have large scale dislocation, as many students must have taken their admission in different colleges as per the allotments so referred above. They must have paid fees also. However, ultimately by allowing the Writ Petition, this Court directed to publish and implement the 3 4 (2005) 13 Supreme Court Cases 749 2002(3)BomCR219 revised merit list and ordered to grant admission to the students strictly in accordance revised list to the colleges of their choices. 29 In the present case the submission is also made to quash the whole process by relying on the Supreme Court Judgment Tanvi Sarwal Vs. Central Board of Secondary Education and Ors5. We are not inclined to accept this submission to avoid further delay and the admission process. The objections so filed, if decided for and/or against, the Respondents and/or its Authority, would be in position to take decision being Expert Panel/Committee, to revise the list after due assessment, if objections are correct, and if the objections are rejected by giving reasons, they can maintain the merit lists so prepared. Ultimately, they have to take decision based upon the facts and the law. 30 The learned Senior counsel appearing for the Respondents as referred and read and distinguish the Judgments so cited by the Petitioner and also relied upon the Supreme Court Judgment in Asha Vs. Pt. B.D.Sharma University of Health Sciences and ors6. The Apex Court in para 31 observed that:"31 5 6 ........ Though there can be rarest of Writ Petition (Civil) No.298 / 2015, Dated 15th June, 2015. (Supreme Court) AIR 2012 SC 3396 rare cases or exceptional circumstances where the courts may have to mould the relief and make exception to the cut-off date of 30th September, but in those cases, the Court must first return a finding that no fault is attributable to the candidate, the candidate has pursued her rights and legal remedies expeditiously without any delay and that there is fault on the part of the authorities and apparent breach of some rules, Regulations and principles in the process of selection and grant of admission. Where denial of admission violates the right to equality and equal treatment of the candidate, it would be completely unjust and unfair to deny such exceptional relief to the candidate. [Refer Arti Sapru and Ors. v. State of J and K and Ors. MANU/SC/0065/1981 (1981) 2 SCC 484; Chavi Mehrotra v. Director General Health ServicesMANU/SC/0635/1994 : (1994) 2 SCC 370; and Aravind Kumar Kankane v. State of UP and Ors. MANU/SC/0416/2001: (2001) 8 SCC 355." Based upon this Judgment, we have passed this order. 31 We have also recently in Ms. Ruchashree Sangole & Ors. Vs. Director, Medical Education & Research (DMER) & Anr. Writ Petition (L) No. 1681 of 2015 dated 12 June 2015, directed the State to add one mark as Experts also conceded to the position to add one mark to all those students who attempted to answer the questions having two probable answers. 32 The delay and/or laches, even if any, in the present case specifically when the similar objections are raised in other High Courts, but the Respondents unable to take decision by its own and as this required consideration, the Expert Panel/Committee needs to take decision with reasons. Therefore, the course which we have adopted in the interest of all, by directing the Respondents who though independently cannot take decision of its own, being not expert in the field, and required to appoint Expert Panel/Committee to take decision. We direct them to do so and complete the process without further delay. 33 Therefore, taking overall view of the matter, we are also of the view that the case is made out to appoint Expert Panel/Committee, as early as possible, preferably within 5 days from today and refer the objections, 7 questions or other connected issues for clarification/explanation immediately. The Expert Panel/Committee to take decision with reasons on all the objections/questions, within 3 days thereafter. The Expert Panel/Committee to take decision and actions for re-preparing or revising the merit list of candidates (CLAT-15) after re-valuation and/or assessment, if required, or pass or declare such results/merit list immediately within 4 days thereafter. It is made clear that (CLAT-2015), the whole merit list and all subsequent process therefore, will be subject to outcome of the Expert Panel/Committee's decision, so referred above, which will be taken as early as possible to avoid further delay of any kind. 34 It is made clear that in view of above, and the Supreme Court Judgment so referred, we are inclined to observe that all admissions of CLAT-2015 as already recorded subject to the final decision of CLAT-Respondent No.1 after completion of above formalities so ordered. 35 We have to express that, in the background, there is no choice but to pass the following order which may affect even the lists so already declared and/or published but if the case is made out and if ultimate decision goes in favour of the Petitioner and/or similarly situated person, for revision and/or re-valuation or re-assessment, the Respondents have to take effective steps even of re-valuation and re-appraisal and revision of the list at the earliest. We are not inclined to set aside the whole process, as revaluation and reassessment is possible and effective way, which will save money and time of everyone. Therefore, in the interest of justice and to avoid further delay, we are inclined to dispose of the present Writ Petition so that the matter can proceed further, instead of keeping issues pending in this High Court. 36 In this world of competition, every strata of the Society, is involved. It is necessary to take effective steps at every stage of conducting such competitive examinations; including all preparation and/or setting up of questions/key answers/objections, hearing and declaration of merit list. The effective corrective measure needs to be provided for every stage of such examination under the guidance/supervision of experts in the subjects. 37 Having once recorded above reasons, we are inclined to observe that all similarly situated students/candidates who have attempted these questions, cannot be deprived of their respective marks, if any, merely because, technically all other affected parties have not been heard. The action of the Respondents, if contrary to law, impermissible, discriminating, arbitrary, the High Court is empowered to invoke the constitutional provisions, hence the following order. 38 Therefore, we are inclined to pass the following order. ORDER a) Respondent No. 1-CLAT to appoint an Expert Panel/Committee, as early as possible, preferably within 5 days from today and refer 7 objections/ questions or other clarification/explanation, connected for their issues, for consideration immediately. b) The Expert Panel/Committee to clarify and/or take decision with reasons on all the objections/questions, as recorded within 3 days thereafter, by following the due process of law. c) The Expert Panel/Committee to take effective decision and actions for re-preparing and/or revising the merit list of candidates, if necessary, (CLAT-15) after re-valuation and/or assessment, if required, or pass or declare such results/merit list immediately, within 4 days thereafter. d) It is made clear that (CLAT-2015), the whole merit list and all subsequent process, will be subject to outcome of the Expert Panel/Committee's decision, so referred above, which will be taken as early as possible by all the concerned, to avoid further delay of any kind. e) Writ Petition is accordingly disposed of, with liberty. f) Rule disposed of accordingly. g) There shall be no order as to costs. The parties to act on the basis of an authenticated copy of this order. (V.L. ACHLIYA, J.) (ANOOP V. MOHTA, J.) ANNEXURE P-8 NAFR HIGH COURT OF CHHATTISGARH, BILASPUR WPC No. 1025 of 2015 1. Anuradha Jain D/o Shri P.C. Jain Aged About 22 years Shanti Vatika Near Anuradha Appt. Geeta Nagar, Choubey Colony, Raipur Chhattisgarh 492001 ---- Petitioner Versus 1. The Convener, Common Law Admission Test (CLAT-2015) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University ( RMNLU ) Sec. D1, LDA Colony, Kanpur Road Scheme, Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh India 226012 2. Oil And Natural Gas Corporation Limited ( ONGC ) Through Deputy General Manager ( IE)Rectt. Green Hills Tel Bhawan, Dehradun 3. Tehri Hydro Development Corporation Ltd ( THDC) Through Deputy General Manager ( Personnel - Policy ) Ganga Bhawan, Pragatipuram Byepass Road, Rishikesh, Uttarakhand 249201 4. Metals And Minerals Trading Corporation ( MMTC ) Through General Manager ( Personnel) Core -1, Scope Complex, 7 Institutional Area, Lodhi Road New Delhi 110003 5. Power Grid Corporation Of India Limited ( PGCIL) Through General Manager B -9, Qutab Institutional Area Kotwaria Sarai, New Delhi 110016 Email Id et20@powergrid.co.in. ---- Respondent For Petitioner : Ms. Akanksha Jain, Advocate. For Respondent No.1 : Shri Sumesh Bajaj, Advocate. For Respondent No.3 : Shri Neeraj Malhotra, Advocate. For Respondent No.4 : Smt. Meena Shastri, Advocate. For Respondent No.5 : Smt. Fouzia Mirza, Advocate. Hon'ble Shri Justice Pritinker Diwaker Order On Board 06/07/2015 Main grievance of the petitioner is that while conducting Common Law Admission Test (in short "CLAT") examination for Post Graduate Course there were several irregularities committed by respondent No.1. The petitioner has prayed for direction to the respondents to produce the entire record pertaining to the result of CLAT, to quash the result of the said examination and then to conduct fresh examination. It has been further prayed by the petitioner to cancel all those admissions which have been made pursuant to the result declared by respondent No.1 and that private respondents No. 2 to 5 be restrained from initiating recruitment process on the basis of result declared by respondent No.1. In the return filed by respondent No.1 it has been stated that admission process has already been completed and classes in most of the law universities have also started. It has also been pleaded by respondent No.1 that almost similar petition was filed before the Bombay High Court and pursuant to direction issued by the Bombay High Court vide Annexure R-1/1, respondent No.1 is willing to reconsider all the questions and their model answers as pointed out by the petitioner in the present petition. Learned counsel submits that all the nine questions, of which reference has been given in the petition, would be referred to the committee of expert and accordingly, necessary orders would be passed. In view of submission made in the return, counsel for the petitioner submits that at this stage she is not pressing any other relief and would be satisfied if all the nine questions mentioned in the petition are referred to the committee of expert and direction may be issued to the said committee to take steps expeditiously. Considering the submissions made by the parties, the present petition is disposed of. As assured by respondent No.1, the expert committee would take decision on the questions referred to in the petition by the petitioner and then would take further steps in accordance with law as expeditiously as possible. Sd/(Pritinker Diwaker) JUDGE ANNEXURE P-9 1 In the High Court of Judicature for Rajasthan at Jaipur Bench, Jaipur ORDER 1. S.B. Civil Writ Petition No.7970/2015 Rashi Mangal Vs. Union of India & Anr. 2. S.B. Civil Writ Petition No.8480/2015 Suhel Qureshi Vs. Union of India & Anr. Date of Order : 7.7.2015 HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE ALOK SHARMA Mr. Dinesh Yadav for the petitioners Mr. R.D. Rastogi- Addl. Solicitor General with Mr. Ashish Tiwari for the respondent No. 1- Union of India Mr. R.N. Mathur Sr. Advocate with Mr. Prateek Mathur for the respondent No.2 On the matters coming to this Court it has transpired that Hon'ble Bombay High Court in its ordinary civil writ jurisdiction (lodging) No. 1984/2015 has directed as under: "a) Respondent No.1-CLAT to appoint an Expert Panel /Committee, as early as possible, preferably within 5 days from today and refer 7 objections/ questions or other connected issues, for clarification / explanation, for their consideration immediately. b) The Expert Panel/ Committee to clarify and / or take decision with reasons on all the objections/ questions, as recorded within 4 days thereafter, by following the due process of law. c) The Expert Panel/ Committee to take effective decision and actions for re-preparing and /or revising the merit list of candidates, if necessary, (CLAT-15) after re-valuation and/ or assessment, if required, or pass or declare such results / merit list immediately, within 4 days thereafter. d) It is made clear that (CLAT-2015), the whole merit list and all subsequent process, will be subject to outcome of the Expert Panel/ Committee's decision, so referred above, which will be taken as early as possible by all the concerned, to avoid further delay of any kind." Counsel for the respondent No.2- Convener of CLAT2015 has stated that in the event the petitioners were to make a representation with regard to the questions/ answers of CLAT-2015 of which they are aggrieved and for which the writ petitions have been filed, the Convener would make a reference of the said questions / answers to the Expert Committee appointed by the Bombay High Court. Mr. Dinesh Yadav appearing for the petitioners submits that aside of the questions of which the petitioners are aggrieved, as detailed in the petitions, in the course of hearing it has transpired that various other questions in CLAT-2015 were either wrongly formulated or wrongly answered as indicated in the final answer key. It has been submitted that 15 questions in issue have now been reflected in Annex.12 filed with the additional affidavit. Heard learned counsel for the parties. I am of the considered view that as the matter with regard to errors in the CLAT-213 has been finally adjudicated on 2.7.2015 by the Hon'ble Bombay High Court, referred to above and the matter referred to an Expert Committee, it would be appropriate as submitted by the counsel for the respondent No.2 Convener (CLAT-2015) that the petitioners also forthwith respondent file their No.2-Convener representation/s on the before issue of the their aggrievement with the said examination. The Convener is thereon directed to make reference of the representation/s to the Expert Committee appointed by the Bombay High Court in the light of its Judgment dated 2.7.2015. The petitions stand disposed of accordingly. The Registry is directed to place a copy of this order in the connected petition. (ALOK SHARMA), J Sharma NK "All corrections made in the judgment/order have been incorporated in the judgment/order being emailed." NK Sharma, Sr.P.A ANNEXURE P-10 IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE FOR RAJASTHAN AT JODHPUR ORDER S.B. CIVIL WRIT PETITION NO. 6413/2015 Miss Parul Sharma V/s. Union of India and Anr. Date of Judgement :::: 13.07.2015 PRESENT HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE P.K. LOHRA, J. Mr. Prakash Sharma, for the petitioner. Mr. Sandeep Shah, for the respondent No. 2. BY THE COURT: Petitioner - an unsuccesful candidate in competitive examination - Common Law Admission Test (CLAT), 2015, has laid this writ petition praying for the undermentioned reliefs :- A. The respondent may kindly be directed to allow petitioner to participate in 2nd counseling and add 10 marks provisionally and as per calculate Rank at a score of 85 and grant permission as per rule of merit-cum-preference. B. That respondent further be directed to till the final decision of Hon'ble High Court to one seat which is approximately around 1370 Rank with a score of 85 is to be awarded to the petitioner so that till the writ is pending the petitioner should not bear loss which may arise of debarring and not granting admission in NLU. C. Any other relief that may be deemed fit in the circumstances of the case may kindly be granted to the petitioner. D. Writ petition may kindly be allowed with cost in favour of the petitioner. With a view to secure desired reliefs, the petitioner has averred, in the petition, that she fared well in the Examination, but unable to achieve requisite marks for selection due to wrong answers, in the answer key, of some of the questions and that has diminished the chances of her selection unfairly. In all, the petitioner has raised her eyebrow against eight questions, for which, according to her, wrong answers are provided. The details of these questions are as under :1) Paper Question no.56 (ID-1766) 2) Paper Question no.113(ID-1825) 3) Paper Question no. 115 (ID-1827) 4) Paper Question no. 116 (ID-1828) 5) Paper Question no. 120 (ID-1832) 6) Paper Question no. 124 (ID-1836) 7) Paper Question no. 136 (ID-1850) 8) Paper Question no. 23 (ID-1730) It is further averred, in the writ petition, that taking cognizance of incorrect answers of some of the questions, Bombay High Court, while disposing of Ordinary Civil Writ Jurisdiction (Lodging) No. 1984/2015, has directed for constituting Expert Panel/Committee to take effective decision and actions for re-preparing and/or revising the merit list of candidates, if necessary. On behalf of respondent No.2 reply has been submitted. In reply, an objection, about non-joinder of necessary parties, has been raised. It is also averred, in the reply, that looking to the marks secured by the petitioner, even if answers of these eight questions, in the answer key, are to be treated as incorrect that would not make her entitle for selection. Commencing of academic session is also cited a reason for non-suiting the petitioner. During the course of arguments, Mr. Prakash Sharma, learned counsel for the petitioner, has brought to my notice that relying on the decision of the Bombay High Court, Jaipur Bench of this Court has disposed of two writ petitions by quoting the directions issued by the Bombay High Court. Bombay High Court issued following directions :a) Respondent No. 1-CLAT to appoint an Expert Panel/Committee, as early as possible, preferably within 5 days from today and refer 7 objections/ questions or other connected issues, for clarification/explanation, for their consideration immediately. b) The Expert Panel/Committee to clarify and/or take decision with reasons on all the objections/questions, as recorded within 3 days thereafter, by following the due process of law. c) The Expert Panel/Committee to take effective decision and actions for re-preparing and/or revising the merit list of candidates, if necessary, (CLAT-15) after re-valuation and/or assessment, if required, or pass or declare such results/merit list immediately, within 4 days thereafter. d) It is made clear that (CLAT-2015), the whole merit list and all subsequent process, will be subject to outcome of the Expert Panel/Committee's decision, so referred above, which will be taken as early as possible by all the concerned, to avoid further delay of any kind. Therefore, relying on the decision of the Bombay High Court and the order dated 07.07.2015 passed by the Jaipur Bench of this Court in S.B. Civil Writ Petition No. 7970/2015 (Rashi Mangal V/s. Union of India and Anr.) with one more writ petition, in my opinion, matter, with regard to error in CLAT 2015, has already been finally adjudicated on 02.07.2015 by the Bombay High Court by way of referring the matter to an Expert Committee. In this view of the matter, it would be appropriate for the petitioner to submit a detailed representation ventilating her grievances before the second respondent, (Convenor) CLAT, 2015 within a fortnight from today. The (Convenor) CLAT, 2015 is thereon directed to make reference of the representation of the petitioner to the Expert Committee appointed by Bombay High Court in light of its judgment dated 2 nd of July, 2015. The instant writ petition is, accordingly, disposed of. (P.K. LOHRA), J. ANNEXURE P-11 * IN THE HIGH COURT OF DELHI AT NEW DELHI + W.P.(C) No.6030/2015, CM No.10959/2015 (for stay) &CM No. 11663/2015 (u/O VI R-17 CPC). PRAGYA BUDHRAJA & ANR ..... Petitioners Through: Ms. Aastha Dhawan, Adv. versus THE UNION OF INDIA & ORS ..... Respondents Through: Mr. Arun Bhardwaj, CGSC with Ms. Gunjan Bansal, Adv. for R-1/ UOI. Mr. Rakesh Mujal, Sr. Adv. with Ms. Padma Priya & Mr. Rishabh Sancheti, Advs. for R-2,3&4. Ms. Padma Priya & Mr. Rishabh Sancheti, Advs. for R-2,3,4,6,8,9,1015, 16 & 17. AND 23. W.P.(C) No.6260/2015 & CM No.11384/2015 (for stay). APURV SINGHVI ..... Petitioner Through: Mr. D.K. Devesh, Adv. versus DR RAM MANOHAR LOHIYA NATIONAL LAW UNIVERSITY & ORS ..... Respondents Through: Mr. Rakesh Munjal, Sr. Adv. With Mr. Udit Gupta, Adv. for R-1. CORAM: HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE RAJIV SAHAI ENDLAW ORDER % 14.07.2015 1. The senior counsel for the respondents no.2&3 CLAT 2015 Core Committee and CLAT 2015 Implementation Committee in W.P.(C) No.6030/2015 states that in accordance with the orders and the judgment of the High Courts of Bombay and Rajasthan, an Expert Committee has been constituted to review the questions and answer sheets. It is further stated that the objections raised by the petitioners herein have also been referred to the said Committee. 2. A perusal of the judgment dated 2nd July, 2015 of the Division Bench of the High Court of Bombay in W.P.(Lodging) No.1784/2015 titled Subham Dutt Vs. The Convenor, CLAT 2015 (UG) Exam shows the High Court to have directed the Expert Committee to clarify and / or take decision with reasons on all the objections / questions by following the due process of law and to revise the merit list of candidates if necessary after revaluation and / or assessment if required and to pass or declare the results / merit list within four days thereafter. It has further been clarified that the whole merit list and all subsequent processes will be subject to the outcome of the Expert Committee"s decision. 3. In view of the aforesaid, the present petitions have also served their purpose and are disposed of. Needless to state that if the Expert Committee directs re-evaluation / reassessment, the same shall be applicable to the petitioners herein as well. 4. The senior counsel further states that a copy of the decision of the Expert Committee shall be furnished to the petitioners herein through counsel. Dasti RAJIV SAHAI ENDLAW, J JULY 14, 2015 ,,pp".. ANNEXURE P-12 RESTATED CERTIFICATE OF INCORPORATION OF LAW SCHOOL ADMISSION COUNCIL, INC. Law School Admission Council, Inc. (the "Council"), a corporation organized and existing under the laws of the State of Delaware, hereby certifies as follows: The name of the corporation is Law School Admission Council, Inc. The Council was originally incorporated under the name "Law School Admission Services, Inc.," and the original Certificate of Incorporation of the Council was filed with the Secretary of State of Delaware on June 12, 1979. Pursuant to Sections 242 and 245 of the General Corporation Law of the State of Delaware, this Restated Certificate of Incorporation restates and integrates and further amends the provisions of the Certificate of Incorporation of this corporation. The text of the Certificate of Incorporation as heretofore amended or supplemented is hereby restated and further amended to read in its entirety as follows: 1. The name of the corporation is LAW SCHOOL ADMISSION COUNCIL, INC. 2. The address of its registered office in the State of Delaware is Corporation Trust Center, 1209 Orange Street in the City of Wilmington, County of New Castle, DE 19801. The name of its registered agent at such address is THE CORPORATION TRUST COMPANY. 3. The purposes for which the Council is formed include: a. To construct, administer and report scores for tests for admission to law school; b. To conduct educational research; and c. To provide services to law schools and the educational community. The Council is a nonprofit organization organized and operated exclusively for charitable, scientific and educational purposes within the meaning of Section 501(c) (3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (or the corresponding provision of any subsequent federal tax law). As a means of accomplishing the foregoing purposes, the Council shall have the power to do any and all acts necessary or conducive to the attainment of any of the objects and purposes hereinbefore set forth, to the same extent and as fully as any natural person might or could do; provided, however, that notwithstanding any provision of this Certificate or any provisions of applicable State law to the contrary, the Council shall not have the power to carry on any activities that would cause it to fail to qualify or fail to continue to qualify, as (a) an organization exempt from federal income tax under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (or the corresponding provision of any subsequent federal tax law), and (b) an organization to which contributions are deductible under Sections 170(c)(2), 2055, and 2522 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (or the corresponding provisions of any subsequent federal tax law). The Council shall be authorized to solicit, receive and administer funds for the above purposes, but the Council shall not be authorized to accept gifts or contributions for other than the purposes hereinbefore stated. The funds of the Council shall be administered on a nondiscriminatory basis and shall not be restricted in use to people of any race, creed, color, gender, national origin, religion, marital status, age, disability, sexual orientation or veteran status. 4. The Council shall not have authority to issue any shares of capital stock, and the conditions of and eligibility for memberships in the Council shall be as stated in the Bylaws. 5. (a) The business and affairs of the Council shall be managed by or under the direction of a Board of Trustees, except as otherwise provided herein or required by law. The number of Trustees of the Council shall be fixed from time to time by a resolution adopted by a majority of the Trustees then in office. Not less than a majority of the then-authorized number of Trustees shall be persons who have been elected by the members of the Council (or have been appointed to fill a vacancy among the number of Trustees elected by the members of the Council or elected to a newly created trusteeship), including (but not limited to) (i) the Chair of the Board of Trustees of the Council (the "Chair") and (ii), in alternate years, the Chair-elect and the immediate past Chair of the Board of Trustees during the year following the completion of a term as Chair (each as determined in accordance with the Bylaws of the Council). The following shall be Trustees ex officio: (i) the chair of each Standing and Board committee (except the Executive Compensation Committee) whom the Board of Trustees determines in establishing such committee should serve as a member of the Board of Trustees; (ii) the President of the corporation (the "President"); and (iii) any Trustee appointed by the Chair pursuant to a resolution of the Board of Trustees fixing the number of Trustees and authorizing such an appointment. All members of the Board of Trustees serving ex officio shall have full voting rights. (b) The Trustees elected by the members of the Council pursuant to Section 5(a) hereof (other than the Chair, the Chair-elect, and the immediate past Chair) shall serve in three classes of staggered three-year terms, with one third of such Trustees elected at each annual meeting of the members of the Council. Each Trustee so elected at the annual meeting shall assume office at the conclusion of such annual meeting and shall serve for a term of three years or until a successor is duly elected and qualified. The Board of Trustees shall fill any vacancy arising during the term of a Trustee elected by the members, but only the members of the Council shall have the power to fill newly created trusteeships that are specified by the Board of Trustees as positions subject to election by the members of the Council. (c) Tie votes in the election of a Chair or a Trustee or Trustees shall be resolved in a manner determined by the Board of Trustees. (d) The Chair, who shall be elected by the members of the Council to a term of two years or until a successor is duly elected and qualified, shall preside at meetings of the Board of Trustees and shall be deemed to be a member of the Council solely for purposes of appointing Trustees as provided for in this Certificate of Incorporation. The chairs of committees shall be appointed by the Chair. Any Trustee appointed by the Chair and the chair of each Standing and Board committee (except for the Executive Compensation Committee) shall serve as Trustee until the end of the term of the appointing Chair or until the Chair's service has been terminated due to death, resignation or other reason and a successor has assumed the office. The chair of any permanent committee may be removed by the Chair with or without cause. The President shall be appointed by and shall serve for such term as the Board of Trustees shall determine. The Chair-elect and the immediate past Chair shall each serve a term of one year. 6. In furtherance and not in limitation of the powers conferred by statute, the Board of Trustees is expressly authorized to make, alter or repeal the Bylaws of the Council. 7. Members of the Council shall be entitled to cast one (1) vote per member, and shall not be entitled to vote by proxy. The Chair and Trustees elected by members of the Council shall be elected only by a vote at a meeting of members of the Council or by ballot, which ballot need not be cast at a meeting of members of the Council for the election of a Chair or Trustees but rather may be submitted to the Council by members of the Council in advance of such meetings of members, as provided for in the Bylaws of the Council. 8. Meetings of members of the Council may be held within or without the State of Delaware, as the Bylaws may provide. The books of the Council may be kept (subject to any provision contained in any applicable statute) outside the State of Delaware at such place or places as may be designated from time to time by the Board of Trustees or in the Bylaws of the Council. 9. No part of the net earnings of the Council shall inure to the benefit of or be distributable to its Trustees, officers or other private persons or to any member of the Council that either (a) is not an organization qualified as an exempt organization under Section 501 (c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (or the corresponding provision of any future federal tax law) or (b) would not be an organization qualified as an exempt organization under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (or the corresponding provision of any future federal tax law), were such member subject to the provisions of the Code. The Council, however, shall be authorized and empowered to pay reasonable compensation for services rendered and to make payments and distributions in furtherance of the purposes set forth in Section 3 hereof. No substantial part of the activities of the Council shall be the carrying on of propaganda, or otherwise attempting to influence legislation, and the Council shall not participate in or intervene in (including the publishing or distribution of statements) any political campaign on behalf of or in opposition to any candidate for public office. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Certificate of Incorporation, the Council shall not carry on any other activities not permitted to be carried on (a) by a corporation exempt from federal income tax under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (or the corresponding provision of any future federal tax law), or (b) by a corporation to which contributions are deductible under Sections 170(c)(2), 2055, and 2522 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (or the corresponding provision of any future federal tax law). 10. In the event of the liquidation, dissolution, or winding up of the affairs of the Council, whether voluntary, involuntary, or by operation of law, the Board of Trustees of the Council shall, except as may be otherwise provided by law, transfer all of the assets of the Council in such manner as the Trustees, in the exercise of their discretion, may determine by a majority vote of the Trustees then in office; provided, however, that any such distribution of assets shall be calculated to carry out the objects and purposes hereinbefore stated in Section 3 hereof, and only such objects and purposes; and, provided further, that such distributions must be to one or more organizations that either (a) are exempt from federal income tax as organizations described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (or the corresponding provision of any subsequent federal tax law), or (b) are corporations to which contributions are deductible under the provisions of Sections 170(c)(2), 2055, and 2522 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (or the corresponding provisions of any subsequent federal tax law) or (c) would either (i) qualify as organizations exempt from federal income tax pursuant to the immediately preceding clause (a) were such provisions of the Internal Revenue Code (or the corresponding provision of any subsequent federal tax law) applicable to them or (ii) would be a corporation to which contributions would be deductible pursuant to the immediately preceding clause (b) were such provisions of the Internal Revenue Code (or the corresponding provision of any subsequent federal tax law) applicable. 11. No Trustee of the Council shall have any personal liability for monetary damages to the Council or its members for a breach of fiduciary duty as a Trustee of the Council; provided, however, that no Trustee seeking benefit of this provision shall have (i) breached the Trustee's duty of loyalty to the Council or its members; (ii) participated in any acts or omissions not in good faith or that involved intentional misconduct or a knowing violation of law; or (iii) participated in any transaction from which the Trustee derived an improper personal benefit. 12. To the extent permitted by law, the Board of Trustees may amend the Certificate of Incorporation by adopting a resolution setting forth the amendment proposed and declaring its advisability. If, at a subsequent meeting held, on notice stating the purpose thereof, not earlier than 15 days and not later than 60 days from the meeting at which such resolution was adopted, a majority of the Board of Trustees then in office shall vote in favor of such amendment, a certificate thereof shall be executed, acknowledged, filed and recorded. 13. The Council reserves the right to amend, alter or repeal any provisions contained in this Certificate of Incorporation in a manner now or hereafter prescribed by applicable statutes, and all rights conferred herein are granted subject to this reservation; provided, however, that no amendment shall authorize the Board of Trustees or the members of the Council to conduct the affairs of the Council in any manner or for any purpose contrary to the provisions of Section 501 (c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (or the corresponding provision of any subsequent federal tax law). IN WITNESS WHEREOF, the said Council has made, under its corporate seal and the hand of Daniel R. Ortiz, its Chair and attested by its Assistant Secretary, the foregoing certificate, and the said Chair and Assistant Secretary have hereunto severally set their hands this 2nd day of June, A.D. 2011. Law School Admission Council, Inc. By Daniel R. Ortiz, Chair [SIGNED] Attest: Joan E. Van Tol [SIGNED] Assistant Secretary BYLAWS OF LAW SCHOOL ADMISSION COUNCIL, INC. ARTICLE I: MEMBERSHIP SECTION 1. Eligibility for Membership. A school of law is eligible for membership in Law School Admission Council, Inc. ("the Council") if it requires that substantially all of its applicants for admission take the Law School Admission Test; and (i) it is a law school approved by the American Bar Association or a member of the Association of American Law Schools; or (ii) it is a Canadian law school that grants degrees that are recognized by a provincial or territorial law society or government agency as an approved academic credential for persons seeking admission to the bar in one of the provinces or territories of Canada. The Board of Trustees of the Council may, at its discretion and following a period for notice and comment among the current members, admit into membership a law school outside of the United States and Canada if (i) it requires that substantially all of its applicants for admission take the Law School Admission Test, and (ii) it is accredited by a governmentally recognized, national accrediting authority or its degrees meet the legal education requirement for bar membership throughout its home country. The Board of Trustees of the Council shall resolve any question of eligibility for membership. The Chair of the Board of Trustees of the Council (the "Chair") shall also be a member of the Council solely for purposes of appointing Trustees as provided for in the Certificate of Incorporation. SECTION 2. Application. The initial members of the Council shall be the members of the Law School Admission Council, a New York educational corporation ("LSAC-NY"), immediately prior to the dissolution of LSAC-NY. Thereafter, an eligible school of law may become a member of the Council by making application to the Chair or Secretary of the Council. A membership becomes effective when the application is approved by the Board of Trustees and continues in effect until the member withdraws or is no longer eligible for membership. SECTION 3. Withdrawal or Failure to Maintain Eligibility. A member may withdraw from membership at any time by giving written notice to the Chair or Secretary of the Council. The withdrawal takes effect at the time specified in the notice. If a member fails to maintain the conditions for eligibility, it shall be deemed to have withdrawn from membership effective as of the date of default in the condition. A school of law that withdraws or becomes ineligible for membership is entitled to receive no portion of the property (real or personal, tangible or intangible) of the Council upon its withdrawal or becoming ineligible for membership. SECTION 4. Representation. A member may be represented at meetings of the Council by a person designated by it; the representative of a member is entitled to vote. Except as otherwise provided in these Bylaws, voting at meetings of the members of the Council shall be by open ballot, the designated representative of each Council member present at the meeting being eligible to announce the member's vote. A member may, in addition, send one or more persons as observers at meetings. SECTION 5. Annual Meeting. An annual meeting of the members of the Council shall be held for the election of members of the Board of Trustees and the Chair of the Board of Trustees as provided in these Bylaws and for the consideration of such other matters as may come before the meeting. The time and place of the annual meeting shall be fixed by the Chair. SECTION 6. Special Meetings. The Chair may call special meetings of the members of the Council at any time. Upon the written request of a majority of the Board of Trustees or of twenty percent of the members of the Council, the Secretary of the Council shall call a special meeting of the members of the Council. SECTION 7. Notice of Meetings. Notice of annual meetings of the members of the Council shall be sent at least 30 days prior to the date thereof, and notices of special meetings shall be sent at least 10 days prior to the date thereof. The notice shall specify the time and place of the meeting and, in the case of special meetings, the general nature of the matters to be considered. Notice of meetings may be sent to each member of the Council by mail, telegram or other form of written communication, addressed to it at its address as shown on the records of the Council. Appropriate notice of an annual or special meeting shall be deemed to have been given to a member if its representative attends the meeting (except when the person attends the meeting for the express purpose of objecting at the beginning of the meeting to the transaction of any business on the ground that the meeting is not lawfully called or convened) or waives the notice by telegraph or other writing, either before or after the meeting. SECTION 8. Quorum and Manner of Acting. (a) A majority of the representatives of all of the members of the Council present in person constitutes a quorum for the transaction of business at any meeting. Except as otherwise provided in these Bylaws, the action of a majority of the members represented at any meeting at which a quorum is present is the action of the Council. In the absence of a quorum, a majority of the members represented at any meeting may adjourn the meeting from time to time until a quorum be had. At any adjourned meeting at which a quorum is so present, any business may be transacted at the meeting as originally called. (b) Any action required or permitted to be taken at any meeting of members of the Council may be taken without a meeting, by the written consent of a majority of the members of the Council setting forth the action taken. SECTION 9. Reimbursement of Expenses. The Board of Trustees may establish the conditions, if any, under which a member of the Council may be reimbursed for reasonable traveling and other expenses incurred by its representative in connection with attendance at annual or special meetings of members of the Council or other Council-sponsored events. SECTION 10. Manner of Electing Trustees and Chair. (a) The Chair shall appoint a Nominating Committee from the faculty or staff of the members of the Council and shall so notify members and invite nominations for offices to be filled at least 125 days prior to any Council meeting at which Trustees or a Chair are to be elected in accordance with these Bylaws. The Nominating Committee shall nominate one or more candidates for every position to be filled and shall notify all Council members of its nominations at least 85 days prior to the Council meeting at which the elections are to occur. (b) Additional nominations of candidates for Trustees or Chair may be made in writing by petition signed by the designated representatives of at least five members of the Council. Such petitions must be filed, in the manner prescribed by the Board of Trustees, at least 55 days prior to the meeting at which the elections are to occur. All Council members shall be promptly notified of any such petition nominations. No candidate shall be eligible for election who has not been nominated in accordance with the procedures herein set forth. (c) At least 40 days prior to the Council meeting at which the elections are to occur, each member shall be furnished with a ballot, in such form as may be prescribed by the Board of Trustees, containing the nominations made pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of Section 10 of this Article. Ballots shall be voted by the Dean of each Council member or by a representative designated by the Dean and mailed to and received by the Secretary not later than 20 days prior to the date of the Council meeting. The candidate for each position receiving the largest number of votes cast shall be elected to that position. Tie votes shall be resolved by lot, in such manner as may be prescribed by the Secretary of the Council. The names of the candidates elected shall be announced at the Council meeting and a document showing the number of votes cast for each candidate shall be made available for inspection. For all purposes of the Bylaws, the candidates elected in the aforesaid manner shall be deemed elected at the Council meeting. ARTICLE II: BOARD OF TRUSTEES SECTION 1. Powers. In accordance with the policies adopted by the members of the Council and except as otherwise provided herein or required by law, the Board of Trustees shall manage the property, business and affairs of the Council. SECTION 2. Number and Term of Office: Trustees. (a) The business and affairs of the Council shall be managed by or under the direction of a Board of Trustees, except as otherwise provided herein or required by law. The number of Trustees of the Council shall be fixed from time to time by a resolution adopted by a majority of the Trustees then in office. Not less than a majority of the then-authorized number of Trustees shall be persons who have been elected by the members of the Council (or have been appointed to fill a vacancy among the number of Trustees elected by the members of the Council or elected to a newly-created trusteeship), including (but not limited to) (i) the Chair of the Board of Trustees of the Council (the "Chair") and (ii), in alternate years, the Chair-elect and the immediate past Chair of the Board of Trustees during the year following the completion of a term as Chair (each as determined in accordance with the Bylaws of the Council). The following shall be Trustees ex officio: (i) the chair of each Standing and Board Committee (except the Executive Compensation Committee) whom the Board of Trustees determines in establishing such committee should serve as a member of the Board of Trustees; (ii) the President of the corporation (the "President"); and (iii) any Trustee appointed by the Chair pursuant to a resolution of the Board of Trustees fixing the number of Trustees and authorizing such an appointment. All members of the Board of Trustees serving ex officio shall have full voting rights. (b) The Trustees elected by the members of the Council pursuant to Section 10 of Article I of these Bylaws (other than the Chair, the Chair-elect and the immediate past Chair) shall serve in three classes of staggered three-year terms, with one third of such Trustees elected at each annual meeting of the members of the Council. Each Trustee so elected at the annual meeting shall assume office at the conclusion of such annual meeting and shall serve for a term of three years or until a successor is duly elected and qualified. The Board of Trustees shall fill any vacancy arising during the term of a Trustee elected by the members, but only the members of the Council shall have the power to fill newly-created trusteeships that are specified as positions subject to election by the members of the Council. (c) The Chair shall be elected by the members of the Council. The President shall be appointed by and shall serve for such term as the Board of Trustees shall determine. The Chair-elect and the immediate past Chair shall each serve a term of one year. SECTION 3. Resignation/Qualification. A Trustee may resign at any time by giving written notice to the Chair or the Secretary. Unless otherwise specified in the notice, the resignation shall take effect upon its receipt by the Chair or the Secretary without the necessity of acceptance by the Chair or the Board of Trustees. It shall be a qualification for service on the Board of Trustees that a Trustee attend meetings of the Board, and the failure of a Trustee to attend three (3) consecutive meetings of the Board shall result in the disqualification of such Trustee to serve on the Board, with the resulting vacancy on the Board to be filled in accordance with the provisions of the Certificate of Incorporation and these Bylaws. SECTION 4. Organization. The Chair of the Board of Trustees shall preside at each meeting thereof. In the Chair's absence, the Chair-elect or the immediate past Chair shall preside, or in the absence of such persons, a member of the Board chosen by a majority of the Trustees present shall preside. The Secretary shall act as secretary of the meetings of the Board of Trustees. If the Secretary is absent, the Chair may appoint any person to act as secretary of the meeting. SECTION 5. Place of Meeting. The Board of Trustees shall hold its meetings at such place or places within or without the State of Delaware as the Chair may designate. SECTION 6. Annual Meeting. The annual meeting of the Board of Trustees shall be held once each calendar year, subsequent to the annual meeting of the members of the Council, for the election of the Secretary for the ensuing year and for the transaction of such other business as may come before the meeting. The time and place of the annual meeting of the Board shall be fixed by the Chair. SECTION 7. Regular and Special Meetings. The Chair may call regular or special meetings of the Board of Trustees at any time. Upon the written request of a majority of the Trustees, the Secretary shall call a special meeting of the Board of Trustees at the time and place requested. SECTION 8. Notice of Meeting. Each Trustee shall furnish the Secretary of the Council with an address to which notices of meetings and all other corporate notices may be sent. Except as otherwise required by law, notices of the annual meeting and of regular or special meetings of the Board of Trustees shall be given not less than five days prior to the date thereof. Each notice shall specify the time and place of the meeting and, in the case of special meetings, the general nature of the business to be transacted. Notice of meetings may be given personally or sent to each Trustee by letter, telegram or other writing, addressed to the address shown on the records of the Council for that Trustee. SECTION 9. Waiver and Consent. Appropriate notice of a meeting of the Board of Trustees shall be deemed to have been given to any Trustee who attends the meeting (except when the Trustee attends the meeting for the express purpose of objecting at the beginning of the meeting to the transaction of any business on the ground that the meeting is not lawfully called or convened) or who waives the notice by telegraph or other writing, either before or after the meeting. SECTION 10. Quorum and Manner of Acting. (a) A majority of all the Trustees at the time in office constitutes a quorum for the transaction of business at any meeting. Except as otherwise provided in these Bylaws, the action of a majority of the Trustees present at any meeting at which a quorum is present is the action of the Board of Trustees. In the absence of a quorum, a majority of the Trustees present at any meeting may adjourn the meeting from time to time until a quorum be had. At any adjourned meeting at which a quorum is so present, any business may be transacted at the meeting as originally called. (b) Members of the Board of Trustees or any committee thereof may participate in a meeting thereof either in person or by means of a conference telephone or similar communications equipment if all persons participating in the meeting can hear each other at the same time and each person can speak to all other persons. Participation in a meeting pursuant to this Bylaw or by other means permitted by law shall constitute presence in person at such meeting. (c) With the written consent of all of the Trustees at the time in office setting forth the action taken and signed by all of the Trustees, the Board of Trustees may take action without a meeting, if such writing is filed with the minutes of the proceedings of the Board. SECTION 11. Indemnification. The Council shall indemnify each Trustee and officer, each former Trustee and officer, and each person who is serving or has served at its request as a duly-appointed member of a committee or subcommittee of the Council who was or is a party or is threatened to be made a party to any threatened, pending or completed action, suit or proceeding, whether civil, criminal, administrative or investigative, to the fullest extent permitted by Delaware law. The Council shall be required to indemnify a person in connection with any action, suit or proceeding (or part thereof) initiated by such person only if such action, suit or proceeding (or part thereof) was authorized by the Board of Trustees. ARTICLE III: OFFICERS AND COMMITTEES SECTION 1. Number and Qualifications of Officers. The officers of the Council are the Chair of the Board of Trustees, the Chair-elect of the Board of Trustees, the President, and the Secretary. Incumbents may hold only one of these positions. The Secretary need not be a member of the Board of Trustees. The Board of Trustees may from time to time appoint such additional officers, agents and employees as it deems advisable and determine their terms of office and compensation, if any. SECTION 2. Election and Term of Office. (a) The Chair of the Board of Trustees shall be elected at the annual meeting of the members of the Council one year prior to the expiration of the incumbent Chair's term, and during the year following election shall serve as Chair-elect. The Chair-elect shall assume office as Chair at the next annual meeting of members of the Council following the one-year term as Chair-elect and shall serve as Chair for a term of two years or until a successor as Chair has been elected and qualified. No person shall be qualified to or shall serve as Chair-elect or Chair of the Board of Trustees who has not previously served for a period of two years as a member of the Board of Trustees of the Council or the Board of Trustees of LSAC-NY. Should a vacancy occur in the office of Chair due to the death or resignation of the Chair or for any other reason, the Chair-elect shall serve as Chair until the next annual meeting of the members of the Council at which time the Chair-elect shall begin the two-year term as Chair. If a vacancy should occur in the office of Chair in a year in which there is no Chair-elect, the vacancy shall be filled by a person selected by the Board of Trustees who shall serve as Chair until the next annual meeting of the members of the Council at which time a new Chair shall be elected to serve a term of two years without serving the normal one-year term as Chair-elect. (b) The Secretary shall be elected at the first meeting of the Board of Trustees following the annual meeting of the members of the Council and shall hold office for a term of one year or until a successor has been elected and qualified. The Secretary shall serve no more than two consecutive one-year terms. SECTION 3. Chair of the Board of Trustees. The Chair of the Board of Trustees shall oversee the property, business and affairs of the Council and the execution of policies adopted by the members of the Council and the Board of Trustees. The Chair shall be a member of the faculty or staff of a law school that is a member of the Council and shall perform all the duties incident to the office of Chair and such other duties as from time to time may be assigned to that office by the Board of Trustees. SECTION 4. President. The President shall be appointed by and shall serve under such terms as the Board of Trustees may determine. The President shall be the principal executive officer of the corporation and shall be responsible, subject to the control of the Board of Trustees and in consultation with the Chair of the Board of Trustees, for the day-to-day management of the property, business and affairs of the Council. SECTION 5. Secretary. The Secretary shall act as secretary of all meetings of the members of the Council and of the Board of Trustees; shall keep minutes thereof in the proper book or books to be provided for the purpose; shall see that all notices required to be given are duly given and served; shall be the custodian of the seal of the Council and shall affix the seal, or cause it to be affixed, to all documents, the execution of which on behalf of the Council under its seal is duly authorized in accordance with the provisions of these Bylaws; shall have charge of the books, records and papers of the Council relating to its organization and management as a corporation, and shall see that the reports, statements and other documents required by law are properly kept and filed; and shall perform all the duties incident to the office of Secretary and such other duties as from time to time may be assigned to that office by the Board of Trustees. The Secretary may be assisted by an Assistant Secretary elected by the Board of Trustees. The Assistant Secretary may exercise all the functions of the Secretary except act as secretary when the Board of Trustees is acting in Executive Session. In the absence of the Secretary, the Chair may appoint any person to act as secretary. If a vacancy occurs in the office of Secretary between annual meetings of the Board of Trustees, the Board shall elect a successor to serve the unexpired term. The Secretary shall receive no compensation. All records of the Secretary may be held by the Assistant Secretary, except for records of Executive Sessions of the Board of Trustees, which shall be held by the Secretary with a copy delivered from time to time to the Chair. All notices required to be given with regard to Executive Sessions shall be given by the Secretary. SECTION 6. Other Officers. Any other officer appointed by the Board of Trustees shall have such duties as may be assigned from time to time by the Board of Trustees. SECTION 7. Committees. The committees of the Council are: Standing Committees: Diversity Committee; Finance and Legal Affairs Committee; Services and Programs Committee; Test Development and Research Committee; and Special Committees established by resolutions adopted by a majority of the entire Board of Trustees, or when requested to do so by a resolution adopted at a meeting of the members of the Council. The responsibility and authority of standing and special committees shall be as specified by resolutions adopted by a majority of the entire Board of Trustees, except as otherwise provided by law or in these Bylaws. The chair and members of Standing and Special Committees shall be chosen from the faculty and staff of members of the Council. Board Committees: Audit Committee; Investment Committee; and Executive Compensation Committee. Board Committees shall be authorized to act for the Board of Trustees pursuant to their charters and to the extent possible under Delaware law. Members of Board Committees shall be Trustees, provided, however, that the Chair may appoint non-voting advisors, who shall be chosen from the faculty and staff of members of the Council, to a Board Committee. The appointment of the chairs and members of Board Committees shall be subject to confirmation by a vote of the Board of Trustees. The chairs of all committees shall be appointed by the Chair of the Board of Trustees and shall serve until the end of the term of office of the appointing Chair or until the Chair's service has been terminated due to death, resignation or other reason and a successor has assumed the office. The members of each committee, and any advisors thereto, shall be appointed annually by the Chair. The chair or any member of a committee may be removed by the Chair with or without cause. SECTION 8. Quorum--Action--Call of Meetings. Unless otherwise provided in a committee's charter or policy: (a) A majority of the members of a committee constitutes a quorum for the transaction of business at any meeting. The action of a majority of members present at a meeting at which a quorum is present is the action of the committee. The chair of a committee, following consultation with the Chair of the Board of Trustees, may call meetings of the committee and fix their time and place. When requested by the Chair of the Board of Trustees or a majority of the committee, the chair shall call a meeting of the committee at the time and place requested. (b) Members of a committee may participate in a meeting thereof either in person or by means of a conference telephone or similar communications equipment if all persons participating in the meeting can hear each other at the same time and each person can speak to all other persons. Participation in a meeting pursuant to this Bylaw or by other means permitted by law shall constitute presence in person at such meeting. (c) Any action required or permitted to be taken at a meeting of any committee may be taken without a meeting by the written consent of all members of the committee setting forth the action taken and signed by each member of the committee, if such writing is filed with the minutes of proceedings of the committee. SECTION 9. Notice of Committee Meetings--Waiver. Notice of a meeting of any committee shall be given to the members thereof at least five days prior to the date thereof. The notice shall state the time and place for the meeting and generally the subjects to be discussed. Appropriate notice of a meeting shall be deemed to have been given to any member who attends the meeting (except when the committee member attends the meeting for the express purpose of objecting at the beginning of the meeting to the transaction of any business on the ground the meeting is not lawfully convened) or who waives the notice by telegraph or other writing, either before or after the meeting. SECTION 10. Resignations. An officer or committee member may resign at any time by giving written notice to the Secretary. Unless otherwise specified in the notice, the resignation shall take effect upon its receipt by the Secretary, and acceptance of the resignation shall not be necessary to make it effective. SECTION 11. Vacancies. A vacancy in any committee position because of death, resignation, removal, disqualification or any other cause that is to be filled shall be filled in the manner prescribed by these Bylaws for regular appointment to the committee position. ARTICLE IV: CONTRACTS AND FINANCES SECTION 1. Execution of Contracts. The Board of Trustees may authorize any officer, employee or agent, in the name of and on behalf of the Council, to enter into any contract or execute and deliver any instrument. The authority may be general or confined to specific instances. Unless authorized by the Board of Trustees, no officer, employee or agent shall have any power or authority to bind the Council by any contract or engagement or pledge its credit or render it liable pecuniarily for any purpose or to any amount. SECTION 2. Loans. No loans may be contracted on behalf of the Council unless authorized by the Board of Trustees. When authorized by the Board of Trustees, any officer or employee of the Council may effect loans and advances at any time for the Council from a bank, trust company, or other institution, or from any firm, corporation or individual, and for such loans and advances may make, execute and deliver promissory notes, bonds or other certificates or evidence of indebtedness of the Council and, when authorized to do so, may pledge, hypothecate or transfer any securities or other property of the Council as security for any loans or advances. This authority may be general or confined to specific instances. SECTION 3. Checks, Drafts and Money Orders. All checks, drafts and other orders for the payment of money out of the funds of the Council, and all notes or evidences of indebtedness of the Council, shall be executed on behalf of the Council in such manner as shall be determined by resolution of the Board of Trustees. SECTION 4. Financial Reserve Policy. (a) The Board of Trustees shall establish and maintain financial reserves from its operations for such purposes as: i. maintaining and renewing services and products of high quality; ii. ensuring the viability of the organization, its governance structures and managerial capabilities; iii. developing selected new services and products benefitting schools and students; iv. v. meeting contractual and legal obligations; and ensuring the continuity, effectiveness and economic efficiency of operations. (b) On an annual basis, the Board of Trustees shall review the level and classification of financial reserves to assure that resources derived from the Council's operations do not exceed those amounts required to support its purposes. This review shall be coordinated with consideration of the establishment of reasonable charges for various Council services and products. (c) The Board of Trustees shall require that the Council's financial resources be subject to proper safeguards,financial accounting and control procedures and independent audit. (d) The members of the Board of Trustees shall view their fiduciary responsibility to include the safeguarding of reserve balances against loss and the investment of these funds so as to realize a favorable return but with paramount concern for safety and required liquidity. (e) As a part of its annual review, the Board of Trustees shall reexamine the policies and practices that assure that Council financial resources are properly protected from loss. ARTICLE V: FISCAL YEAR The fiscal year of the Council begins on the first day of July. ARTICLE VI: SEAL The seal of the Council shall be in such form and shall bear such words or symbols as the Board of Trustees may determine. ARTICLE VII: OFFICES In addition to its principal office at Penn Street, Newtown, Pennsylvania, the Council may maintain such other offices, either within or without the State of Delaware, as the Chair may determine subject to the approval of the Board of Trustees. ARTICLE VIII: AMENDMENTS SECTION 1. Amendments to the Certificate of Incorporation. To the extent permitted by law, the Board of Trustees may amend the Certificate of Incorporation by adopting a resolution setting forth the amendment proposed and declaring its advisability. If, at a subsequent meeting held, on notice stating the purpose thereof, not earlier than 15 days and not later than 60 days from the meeting at which such resolution was adopted, a majority of the entire Board of Trustees shall vote in favor of such amendment, a certificate thereof shall be executed, acknowledged, filed and recorded. SECTION 2. Amendments to the Bylaws. (a) The Board of Trustees may amend the Bylaws by a vote of a majority of the entire Board of Trustees. (b) A representative of any member of the Council may propose an amendment to the Bylaws by sending a copy of the proposed text thereof to the Secretary. The Secretary shall mail notice of the proposed amendment to the Trustees and to all members of the Council not less than 30 days before the Board of Trustees shall consider the proposed amendment to the Bylaws. (c) The members of the Council may amend the Bylaws by a vote of a majority of all the members. Any Trustee or a representative of any member may propose an amendment to the Bylaws by sending a copy of the proposed text thereof to the Secretary. The Secretary shall mail notice of the proposed amendment to the Trustees and to all members of the Council not less than 30 days before the members of the Council shall consider the proposed amendment to the Bylaws. ARTICLE IX: DISSOLUTION PROVISIONS In the event of the liquidation, dissolution, or winding up of the affairs of the Council, whether voluntary, involuntary, or by operation of law, the Board of Trustees of the Council shall, except as may be otherwise provided by law, transfer all of the assets of the Council in such manner as the Trustees, in the exercise of their discretion, may determine by a majority vote of the entire Board of Trustees; provided, however, that any such distribution of assets shall be calculated to carry out the objects and purposes stated in Section 3 of the Council's Certificate of Incorporation, and only such objects and purposes; and, provided further, that such distributions must be to one or more organizations that (a) are exempt from federal income tax as organizations described in Section 501 (c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (or the corresponding provision of any subsequent federal tax law), or (b) are corporations to which contributions are deductible under the provisions of Sections 170 (c)(2), 2055, and 2522 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (or the corresponding provisions of any subsequent federal tax law) or (c) would either (i) qualify as organizations exempt from federal income tax pursuant to the immediately preceding clause (a) were such provisions of the Internal Revenue Code (or the corresponding provision of any subsequent federal tax law) applicable to them or (ii) would be a corporation to which contributions would be deductible pursuant to the immediately preceding clause (b) were such provisions of the Internal Revenue Code (or the corresponding provision of any subsequent federal tax law) applicable. ANNEXURE P-13 CLAT ERRORS Prepared by Ashwini Vaidialigam, Namrata Vinod, Param Pandya, Pranjal Mehta, Shubham Jain, Spadika Jayaraj, and Vineet Bhalla TABLE OF CONTENTS 1. Incorrect questions/answers 2. Questions requiring prior legal knowledge 3. Questions bearing no nexus to aptitude for study of law 4. Questions with unclear instructions 5. Other problematic questions 6. Minor errors 1. INCORRECT QUESTIONS/ANSWERS CLAT 2008 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 87. The person who won Jawaharlal Nehru award in 2007: (a) Lula de Silva (b) Hugo Chavez (c) Aung Saan Suu Ki (d) Fidel Castro All the options are incorrect, as the 2007 winner of the said award is O.R. Grimmson. LEGAL APTITUDE 180. Principles 1. The owner of a land has absolute interest on the property including the contents over and under the property. 2. Water flowing below your land is not yours though you can use it. 3. Any construction on your land belongs to you. 4. All mineral resources below the land belongs to the State. Facts: There is a subterranean water flow under Suresh's land surface. Suresh constructed a huge reservoir and drew all subterranean water to the reservoir. As a result, the wells of all adjacent property owners have gone dry. They demanded that either Suresh must demolish the reservoir or share the reservoir water with them. Proposed Decision (a) Suresh need not demolish the reservoir. (b) Suresh has to demolish the reservoir. (c) Suresh has to share the water with his neighbours. (d) The Government can take over the reservoir. Possible reasons i) Water cannot be captured by one person for his personal use. ii) The Government must ensure equitable distribution of water. iii) Whatever is under Suresh's land may be used by him. iv) Suresh has to respect the rights of others regarding water. Your decision with the reason (a) (a) (iii) (b) (b) (i) (c) (c) (iv) (d) (d) (ii) The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (D). However, the rules make no mention of the government's right to take over the reservoir. On the contrary, Principle 3 states that all construction belongs to the owner. The rules also state that water can be used by the person for personal use. This presumably will not include the right to divert all the water to his exclusive possession and use. Hence, there is inadequate justification for D to be the correct answer. 187. No minor can enter into a contract of work. Working in a shop can be done only by a contract. Which of the following derivation is correct ? (a) A minor cannot work in a shop (b) A shop cannot contract with a minor (c) There cannot be a contract to which minor is a party (d) None of the above. The correct answer is (A) as it is a logical extension of the propositions. The Answer Key incorrectly states the correct answer as (C). However, the statement in (C) does not account for the second statement in the question at all, and makes an incorrect expansion of the assertion in the first statement. CLAT 2009 ENGLISH There is a fairly universal sentiment that the use of nuclear weapons is clearly contrary to morality and that its production probably so, does not go far enough. These activities are not only opposed to morality but also to law if the legal objection can be added to the moral, the argument against the use and the manufacture of these weapons will considerably be reinforced. Now the time is ripe to evaluate the responsibility of scientists who knowingly use their expertise for the construction of such weapons, which has deleterious effect on mankind. To this must be added the fact that more than 50 percent of the skilled scientific manpower in the world is now engaged in the armaments industry. How appropriate it is that all this valuable skill should be devoted to the manufacture of weapons of death in a world of poverty is a question that must touch the scientific conscience. A meeting of biologists on the Long-Term Worldwide Biological consequences of nuclear war added frightening dimension to those forecasts. Its report suggested that the long biological effects resulting from climatic changes may at least be as serious as the immediate ones. Sub-freezing temperatures, low light levels, and high doses of ionizing and ultraviolet radiation extending for many months after a large-scale nuclear war could destroy the biological support system of civilization, at least in the Northern Hemisphere. Productivity in natural and agricultural ecosystems could be severely restricted for a year or more. Post war survivors would face starvation as well as freezing conditions in the dark and be exposed to near lethal doses of radiation. If, as now seems possible, the Southern Hemisphere were affected also, global disruption of the biosphere could ensue. In any event, there would be severe consequences, even in the areas not affected directly, because of the interdependence of the world economy. In either case the extinction of a large fraction of the earth's animals, plants and microorganism seems possible. The population size of Homo sapiens conceivably could be reduced to prehistoric levels or below, and extinction of the human species itself cannot be excluded. 4. According to the passage, the argument on use and manufacture of nuclear weapons (a) does not stand the test of legality (b) possesses legal strength although it does not have moral standing (c) is acceptable only on moral grounds (d) becomes stronger if legal and moral considerations are applied The question is wrongly phrased. The reading comprehension passage makes a case against the manufacture and use of nuclear weapons. The error in this question is that it ought to read "the argument against......" and not "argument on". This minor change in the wording of the question completely alters its meaning and is very confusing on the first read. The Answer Key states the answer to be (D). 6. Which one of the following is one of the consequences of nuclear war? (a) fertility of land will last for a year or so (b) post war survivors being few in number will have abundant food (c) lights would be cooler and more comfortable (d) Southern hemisphere would remain quite safe in the post-war period The question cannot be answered from among the options presented. The Answer Key states the answer to be (b). However, that is not the conclusion one can draw on reading the question, the relevant part of which states: "Post war survivor would face starvation as well as freezing.....". Therefore none of the options given are correct. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 48.Who got the World Food Prize? (a) Kofi Annan (b) Man Mohan Singh (d) Bhumibol Adulyadej (c) Hillary Clinton The question is incorrect as none of the persons named in the options have won the World Food Prize. Moreover, the order of options is incorrect, as (d) precedes (c) in the options given. MATHEMATICAL ABILITY 99. Three friends shared the cost of a television. If Amit, Bharat and Dinesh each paid Rs. 3000 and Rs.1800 respectively, then Dinesh paid what percent of the total cost? (a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40% As a result of insufficient data, it is impossible to answer the question. Either the real value of the third friend's share or the total value of the television must have been provided in order to answer this. CLAT 2010 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 80. Which country was known as sick man of Europe? (a) Greece (b) Latvia (c) Turkey (d) Austria There is more than one correct answer for this question. The label of sick man of Europe has been given to various European countries at different points of time for experiencing economic difficulty or impoverishment. While the term was first-used in the mid-nineteenth century to describe the Ottoman Empire7 (whose modern day representative is Turkey), the term has been used as recently as 2009 to administered refer in to May Greece.8 2010, Since candidates the exam could've was been confused between Greece and Turkey since both have been known as sick man of Europe at different points of time. If perhaps the question was rephrased, or if Greece was not among the options, Turkey would've been the correct answer. But in its current state, the question is ambiguous, with two correct answers. The Answer Key states the answer to be (C). CLAT 2011 ENGLISH Passage for Questions 1 to 10 In 1954, a Bombay economist named A.D. Shroff began a Forum of Free Enterprise, whose ideas on economic http://www.nybooks.com/articles/archives/2001/mar/08/turkeys-hidden-past/#fnr1 http://www.turkishnews.com/en/content/2008/12/11/greece-to-appear-sick-man-ateu-summit/ 7 8 development were somewhat at odds with those then influentially articulated by the Planning Commission of the Government of India. Shroff complained against the 'indifference, if not discouragement' with which the state treated entrepreneurs. At the same time as Shroff, but independently of him, a journalist named Philip Spratt was writing a series of essays in favour of free enterprise. Spratt was a Cambridge communist who was sent by the party in 1920s to foment revolution in the subcontinent. Detected in the act, he spent many years in an Indian jail. The books he read in the prison, and his marriage to an Indian woman afterwards, inspired a steady move rightwards. By the 1950s, he was editing a proAmerican weekly from Bangalore, called MysIndia. There he inveighed against the economic policies of the government of India. These, he said, treated the entrepreneur 'as a criminal who has dared to use his brains independently of the state to create wealth and give employment'. The state's chief planner, P.C. Mahalanobis, had surrounded himself with Western leftists and Soviet academicians, who reinforced his belief in 'rigid control by the government over all activities'. The result, said Spratt, would be 'the smothering of free enterprise, a famine of consumer goods, and the tying down of millions of workers to soul-deadening techniques.' The voices of men like Spratt and Shroff were drowned in the chorus of popular support for a model of heavy industrialization funded and directed by the governments. The 1950s were certainly not propitious times for free marketers in India. But from time to time their ideas were revived. After the rupee was devalued in 1966, there were some moves towards freeing the trade regime, and hopes that the licensing system would also be liberalized. However, after Indira Gandhi split the Congress Party in 1969, her government took its 'left turn', nationalizing a fresh range of industries and returning to economic autarky. 2. Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from the passage. (a) Acceptance of A.D. Shroff's plans in the official circles smothered free enterprise in India. (b) The views of the Forum of Free Enterprise ran against the conception of development then prevalent among the policy makers. (c) A.D. Shroff believed that state should actively support the private sector. (d) Philip Spratt had been educated in Cambridge. On studying the passage, the correct answer that one arrives at is (a), since Shroff is portrayed as an advocate of free enterprise. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (d). This is despite the passage clearly referring to Spratt as a "Cambridge Communist". Passage for Questions 21 to 30 In recent weeks the writers William Dalrymple and Patrick French, among others, have come before a fusillade of criticism in India, much of it questioning not their facts, not their interpretations, but their foreignness. "Who gets to write about India?" The Wall Street Journal asked on Wednesday in its own report on this Indian literary feuding. It is a complicated question, not least because to decide who gets to write about India, you would need to decide who gets to decide who gets to write about India. Rather than conjecturing some Committee for the Deciding of the Deciding of Who Gets to Write About India, it might be easier to let writers write what they please and readers read what they wish. The accusations pouring forth from a section of the Indian commentariat are varied. Some criticism is of a genuine literary nature, fair game, customary, expected. But lately a good amount of the reproaching has been about identity. In the case of Mr. Dalrymple, a Briton who lives in New Delhi, it is--in the critics' view--that his writing is an act of recolonization. In the case of Mr. French, it is that he belongs to a group of foreign writers who use business-class lounges and see some merit in capitalism and therefore do not know the real India, which only the commentarial member in question does. What is most interesting about these appraisals is that their essential nature makes reading the book superfluous, as one of my Indian reviewers openly admitted. (His review was not about the book but about his refusal to read the book). The book is not necessary in these cases, for the argument is about who can write about India, not what has been written. For critics of this persuasion, India surely seems a lonely land. A country with a millennial history of Hindus, Christians, Jews, Muslims and Buddhists living peaceably together; a country of hundreds of dialects in which so many. Indians are linguistic foreigners to each other, and happily, tolerantly so; a country that welcomes foreign seekers (of yoga poses, of spiritual wisdom, of ancestral roots) with open arms; a country where, outside the elite world of South Delhi and South Bombay, I have not heard an Indian ask whether outsiders have a right to write, think or exist on their soil. But it is not just this deep-in-the-bones pluralism that challenges the who-gets-to-write-about-India contingent. It is also that at the very heart of India's multifarious changes today is this glimmering idea: that Indians must be rewarded for what they do, not who they are. Identities you never chose--caste, gender, birth order--are becoming less important determinants of fate. Your deeds-- how hard you work, what risks you take--are becoming more important. It is this idea, which I have found pulsating throughout the Indian layers, that leaves a certain portion of the intelligentsia out of sync with the surrounding country. As Mr. French has observed, there is a tendency in some of these writers to value social mobility only for themselves. When the new economy lifts up the huddled masses, then it becomes tawdry capitalism and rapacious imperialism and soulless globalization. Fortunately for those without Indian passports, the nativists' vision of India is under demographic siege. The young and the relentless are India's future. They could not think more differently from these literatis. They savour the freedom they are gaining to seek their own level in the society and to find their voice; and they tend to be delighted at the thought that some foreigners do the same in India and love their country as much as they do. 24. The writer believes that the most peculiar aspect of the criticisms that Patrick French and William Dalaymple have received is that: (a) Most such condemnation has emerged from elite Indians. (b) Such critics are hostile to upward immobility. (c) These censures are not centered on the books of such writers or their literary styles but are targeted at their identity instead. (d) These critics ignore the plural ethos of India. The passage clearly states that "What is most interesting about these appraisals is that their essential nature makes reading the book superfluous, as one of my Indian reviewers openly admitted. (His review was not about the book but about his refusal to read the book). The book is not necessary in these cases, for the argument is about who can write about India, not what has been written." Hence, the use of the phrase 'most interest' clearly indicates that the correct answer is (c). The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (d). Passage for Questions 31 to 40 If religion and community are associated with global violence in the minds of many people, then so are global poverty and inequality. There has, in fact, been an increasing tendency in recent years to justify policies of poverty removal on the ground that this is the surest way to prevent political strife and turmoil. Basing public policy-- international as well as domestic--on such an understanding has some evident attractions. Given the public anxiety about wards and disorders in the rich countries in the world, the indirect justification of poverty removal-not for its own sake but for the sake of peace and quiet in the world--provides an argument that appeals to self-interest for helping the needy. It presents an argument for allocating more resources on poverty removal because of its presumed political, rather than moral relevance. While the temptation to go in that direction is easy to understand, it is a perilous route to take even for a worthy cause. Part of the difficulty lies in the possibility that if wrong, economic reductionism would not only impair our understanding of the world, but would also tend to undermine the declared rationale of the public commitment to remove poverty. This is a particularly serious concern, since poverty and massive inequality are terrible enough in themselves, and deserve priority even if there were no connection whatsoever with violence. Just as virtue is its own reward, poverty is at least its own penalty. This is not to deny that poverty and inequality can-and do-have far reaching consequences with conflict and strife, but these connections have to be examined and investigated with appropriate care and empirical scrutiny, rather than being casually invoked with unreasoned rapidity in support of a 'good cause'. Destitution can, of course, produce provocation for defying established laws and rules. But it need not give people the initiative, courage, and actual ability to do anything very violent. Destitution can be accompanied not only by economic debility, but also by political helplessness. A starving wretch can be too frail and too dejected to fight and battle, and even to protest and holler. It is thus not surprising that often enough intense and widespread suffering and misery have been accompanied by unusual peace and silence. Indeed, many famines have occurred without there being much political rebellion or civil strife or intergroup warfare. For example, the famine years in the 1840s in Ireland were among the most peaceful, and there was title attempt by the hungry masses to intervene even as ship after ship sailed down the river Shannon with rich food. Looking elsewhere, my own childhood memories in Calcutta during the Bengal famine of 1943 include the sight of starving people dying in front of sweetshops with various layers of luscious food displayed behind the glass windows, without a single glass being broken, or law or order being disrupted. 32. The author believes that it may not be advisable to emphasise on the connection between poverty and violence as: (a) Emphasis on such connection appeals only to selfinterest of persons. (b) Linking poverty and violence undermines the moral character of anti-poverty measures. (c) The absence of any essential connection between poverty and violence may then weaken the very rationale of anti-poverty policies. (d) There is no necessary link between poverty and inequality. The passage states that "Part of the difficulty lies in the possibility that if wrong, economic reductionism would not only impair our understanding of the world, but would also tend to undermine the declared rationale of the public commitment to remove poverty. This is a particularly serious concern, since poverty and massive inequality are terrible enough in themselves, and deserve priority even if there were no connection whatsoever with violence.", as per which, the correct answer is (c). The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (d). 33. Which of the following best captures the central argument of this passage. (a) Religion is inextricably linked with violence (b) Famines may not necessarily result in civil unrest. (c) Global poverty and inequality are one of the fundamental causes of global violence and strife. (d) Basing anti-poverty programmes on the need for avoidance of violence and strife is dotted with many pitfalls. The correct summation of the passage is provided by (d). The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (c). This is definitely not correct as the passage states that "It is thus not surprising that often enough intense and widespread suffering and misery have been accompanied by unusual peace and silence". 35. The author refers to his own experience as a child during the Bengal famine of 1943 in order to. (a) Illustrate how religiosity may instill passive acceptance of even the worst forms of starvation among people. (b) Repudiate the argument that religious discrimination usually tends to inspire violent protests. (c) Substantiate his assertion that it is not unusual to have the most intense suffering and misery coexist with complete peace. (d) Demonstrate that people confronted with acute starvation are rendered too helpless to protest ever at all. If one looks at this portion of the passage pertinent to the question, which is: "my own childhood memories in Calcutta during the Bengal famine of 1943 include the sight of starving people dying in front of sweetshops with various layers of luscious food displayed behind the glass windows, without a single glass being broken, or law or order being disrupted", one must conclude that the correct answer is (c). The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (a). GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 88. Which of the following pairings is incorrect? (a) Muammar Gaddafi--Syria (b) Fidel Castro--Cuba (c) Pol Pot--Cambodia (d) Hosni Mubarak--Egypt. All the other options save (a) list out names of persons who went on to become heads of the countries given with their names. Therefore, the correct answer is (a). The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (c). LOGICAL REASONING 134. Which one of the following statements is best described as an assertion of opinion rather than an assertion of fact? (a) Brazil, China and India are now among the largest emitters of greenhouse gases. (b) Scientists agree that human activity is an important cause of climate change. (c) The Indian government's policy on climate change is misguided. (d) The Indian government's policy on climate change has changed significantly in the last five years. The correct answer is (c) since it is expressing an opinion on India's climate change policy. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (a). 135. (A) The number of people migrating into Bengaluru has increased significantly in recent years. (B) This is because Bengaluru provides more economic opportunities than the towns and villages from which these migrants come. (C) This sudden influx of migrants has made the city less pleasant to live in. (D) The success of the government's rural employment guarantee act might have the effect of stemming some rural-urban migration. Which one of the above statements is best described as an assertion of opinion rather than an assertion of fact? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D This question has two answers. Both (c) and (d) are opinions. The Answer Key states that the correct answer is (d). Poverty is--more restrictive and limiting than anything else. If poverty and low standards continue then democracy, for all its fine institutions and ideals, ceases to be a liberating force. It must therefore aim continuously at the eradication of poverty and its companion unemployment. In other words, political democracy is not enough. It must develop into economic democracy also'. 154. 'Which of the following is not implied by the above passage? (a) Democracy has ceased to be a liberating force. (b) Democracy should aim to eliminate poverty. (c) Poverty and unemployment go hand in hand. (d) Political democracy should develop into economic democracy. Based on the passage, the correct answer is (a). However, the Answer Key incorrectly states that the answer is (c). This is despite the passage referring to "poverty and its companion unemployment". LEGAL APTITUDE Rules A. The fundamental right to freedom of association includes the right to form an association as well as not join an association. B. The fundamental right to freedom of association also includes the freedom to decide with whom to associate. C. The fundamental right to freedom of association does not extend to the right to realize the objectives of forming the association. D. Fundamental rights are applicable only to laws made by or administrative actions of the State and do not apply to actions of private persons. E. Any law in contravention of fundamental rights is unconstitutional and therefore cannot bind any person. Facts: Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals, a private company, offered an employment contract of two years to Syed Monirul Alam. One of the clauses in the employment contract provided that Syed Monirul Alam must join Gajodhar Mazdoor Singh (GMS), one of the trade unions active in Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals. 156. Decide which of the following propositions can be most reasonably inferred through the application of the stated legal rules to the facts of this case: (a) The employment contract offered to Monirul Alam to join GMS is legal as it does not restrict his freedom not to join any association. (b) The condition requiring Monirul Alam to join GMS cannot bind him as it impinges on his freedom not to join any association. (c) Syed Monirul Alam cannot claim a fundamental right to freedom of association against Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals and therefore, the contract would bind him even though his freedom of association is restricted. (d) The employment contract infringes Syed Monirul Alam's freedom to decide with whom to associate and therefore is legally not enforceable. Applying the given rules, the correct answer is (c) as GP is a private company and Fundamental Rights cannot be enforced against it. However, the Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (d). Rule A: When a State undertakes any measure, the effects of the measure must be the same for all those who are affected by it. Facts: 100 mountaineers embarked on an extremely risky climbing expedition in Leh. Weather conditions worsened five days into the expedition and the mountaineers are trapped under heavy show. The government received information of this tragedy only two weeks after the unfortunate incident and has only 24 hours in which to send rescue helicopters. Weather stations across the world confirm that this particular region of Leh will experience blizzards of unprecedented intensity for almost two weeks after this 24 hour window rendering any helicopter activity in the region impossible and certain death for anyone left behind. The government has only five rescue helicopters with a maximum capacity of 50 people (excluding pilots and requisite soldiers) and these helicopters can fly only once in 24 hours to such altitudes. As the Air Force gets ready to send the helicopters, an emergency hearing is convened in the Supreme Court to challenge this measure as this would leave 50 people to die. 178. If you were the judge required to apply Rule A, you would decide that: (a) As many lives must be saved as possible. (b) If everyone cannot be rescued, then everyone must be left behind. (c) A measure cannot be upheld at the cost of 50 lives. (d) It must be left to those who are trapped to decide if they want half amongst them to be saved and leave the rest to die. Applying Rule A strictly, the answer should be (b), since the effect of a state measure must be equal for everyone to be affected by it so if everyone cannot be rescued, then no one should be so that the effect is equal. However, the answer key incorrectly states the answer to be (d). Rules: A. Whoever intending to take any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property out of his or her possession, is said to commit theft. B. A person who, without lawful excuse, damages any property belonging to another intending to damage any such property shall be guilty of causing criminal damage. C. Damage means any impairment of the value of a property. Facts: Veena, an old lady of 78 years, used to live with her granddaughter Indira. Veena was ill and therefore bedridden for several months. In those months, she could not tolerate any noise and it 'became quite difficult to clean her room. After she died, Indira hired a cleaner, Lucky, to clean the room and throw away any rubbish that may be there. There was a pile of old newspapers which Veena had stacked in a corner of her room. Lucky asked Indira if he should clear away the pile of old newspapers, to which she said yes, Lucky took the pile to a municipality rubbish dump. While Lucky was sorting and throwing away the newspapers, he was very surprised to find a beautiful painting in between two sheets of paper. He thought that Indira probably wouldn't want this old painting back, especially because it was torn in several places and the colour was fading. He took the painting home, mounted it on a wooden frame and hung it on the wall of his bedroom. Unknown to him, the painting was an old 'masterpiece, and worth twenty thousand rupees. Before mounting the painting, Lucky pasted it on a plain sheet of paper so that it does not tear any more. By doing so, he made its professional 'restoration very difficult and thereby reduced its value by half. Lucky's neighbour Kamala discovered that the painting belonged to Indira. With the motive of returning the painting to Indira, Kamala climbed through an open window into Lucky's room when he was away one afternoon and removed the painting from his house. 191. Which of the following propositions could be inferred from the facts and the rules specified. (a) Kamala is guilty of criminal damage as the person she took the painting from (Lucky) was not its lawful owner. (b) Kamala is guilty of criminal damage as she took the painting without Lucky's consent. (c) Kamala is not guilty of criminal damage as the painting has not been completely destroyed. (d) None of the above. The correct answer is (d) as none of the other options are correct. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (c). However, this is incorrect because the offense of Criminal Damage is unconnected to taking the painting without consent. Further, the damage to the painting was not done by Kamala. CLAT 2012 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 75. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) completed how many years of operation in 2011? (A) 3 years (B) 4 years (C) 5 years (D) 6 years As the Act become operational only after it got notified by the Central Government in 2006, the correct answer is 5 years, i.e. option C. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (d). The Delhi High Court adjudicated the correctness of this answer in its judgment in the case of Archit Krishna v. National Law University, Jodhpur & others, where it held that the answer in the Answer Key is incorrect.9 The relevant portion of the judgment has been reproduced below: "4. .. As per answer-key, the correct answer is (D) whereas according to the petitioner, the correct answer is (C). Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act came to be passed by Parliament on 25.8.2005, it received assent of the President on 05.09.2005 and was notified on http://barandbench.com/delhi-high-court-observes-two-errors-clat-2012-answersheet-finding-raises-questions/. 9 02.02.2006. Section 1(3) of the aforesaid Act reads as under: (3) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint; and different dates may be appointed for different States or for different areas in a State and any reference in any such provision to the commencement of this Act shall be construed as a reference to the coming into force of thatprovision in such State or, as the case may be, in such area: Provided that this Act shall be applicable to the whole of the territory to which it extends within a period of five years from the date of enactment of this Act. It would thus be seen that the aforesaid Act did not come into force immediately on its being passed by Parliament. It came into force only on 02.02.2006 when it was notified in Gazette of India. An Act of Parliament cannot be said to have become operational before it is notified, when the Act itself provides that it will come into force only on the appointed date. The years of operation, therefore, will commence only from the appointed date and not from the date the Act was passed by Parliament. Since the Act came into force/operation only on 02.02.2006, it has completed 5, not 6 years of operation in the year 2011. Therefore, the answer to this question, as contained in the answer key, is neither a correct nor one of the possible correct answers." 86. Priyanka Chopra has been named National Ambassador of (A) WHO (B) UNICEF (C)UNESCO (D)International Red Cross Society Priyanka Chopra has been appointed National Ambassador by both UNICEF and UNESCO, the question has multiple answers. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (c). 89. As per the Indian Union Budget of 2012-13, the incometax exemption limit for persons below 65 years of age is (A) Rs. 175000 (B) Rs. 200000 (C) Rs. 250000 (D) Rs.190000 The exemption limit for persons between 60 and 80 years of age is Rs 2.50 lakh and for persons below 60 years is Rs. 2,00,000 . The income-tax exemption limit for a person below 65 years would therefore depend on whether the person is below 60 years. Hence, both the question and answer are wrong. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (b). LOGICAL REASONING Instructions (124-126): Each question below has two statements followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to accept the given statements to be true, even if they appear to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements: 125. Statement One: All researchers are sociologists Statement Two: Some researchers are professors. Conclusions: I. All researchers are professors. II. Some researchers are professors. III. Some professors are sociologists. IV. Some sociologists are researchers. (A) Only III and II follow. (B) Only II and IV follow. (C) Only III follows. (D) None follows. The correct answer is that II, III and IV follow. However, this is not one of the options provided. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be B, which is incorrect because as opposed to what Option B suggests, III follows as well. Instructions (127 to 129): The following questions comprise of one or more statements. Answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Accept the factual assumptions required by the question, even if you believe that the statement is false. 127. Statements: I. Cheese is bad for people with high-cholesterol. II. Sumeet does not eat cheese. Assuming that (i) and (ii) are true, which of the following statement follows? (A) Sumeet has high-cholesterol. (B) Cheese is bad for Sumeet. (C) People with high-Cholesterol do not eat cheese. (D) None of the above. The right answer is D as none of the answer statements follow the original statements. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be C. This is incorrect for two reasons. First, the fact that cheese is bad for people with high-cholesterol does not necessarily mean that those with high cholesterol do not each cheese. Second, Option C does not take into account the second statement ("Sumeet does not eat cheese") at all. LEGAL APTITUDE 160. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsound state of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or something that he is doing is either wrong or contrary to law. Fact: X takes his son Y who is three years old, for bathing to the well. He throws his son inside the well so that the son can have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also jumps into the well to take bath and get his son out of the well. Both were rescued by the villagers but his son was found dead. (A) X has committed culpable homicide amounting to murder (B) X has committed murder (C) X has done no offence as he can plead the defense of unsound state of mind (D) X's family should be held responsible for allowing him to take the child to the well The definition of 'culpable homicide amounting to murder' is not supplied to the student. Those in the legal fraternity are aware of the nuanced distinction between Option A and B, but it is unfair to expect a law aspirant to reason out the answer by knowing this distinction. Further, while the Principle refers to the defense of 'unsound mind', there is no reference to X's state of mind in the question. Therefore, the Question is too ambiguous, and thereby erroneous. The Answer Key incorrectly states that the answer is option A. CLAT 2014 ENGLISH Directions for Questions 1 to 10: Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option. 10. The dissidents ____ a great problem in every political party. (A) Give (B) Cause (C) Pose (D) Hold The correct answer is (c). The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (b). This is incorrect because, in this case, the dissidents themselves are the problem. Had an action of theirs been a problem, then 'cause' would have been the appropriate answer. But here, their mere existence is the problem Direction for Question 12: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. 12. (a) When a dictionary is being edited, a lexicographer collects all the alphabetically arranged citations slips for a particular word. (b) The moment a new word is coined, it usually enters the spoken language. (c) The dictionary takes note if it and makes a note if it on a citations slip. (d) The word then passes from the realm of hearing to the realm of writing. (A) abcd (B) acbd (C) bacd (D) cabd It is abundantly clear that the paragraph is to explain how a word moves from the realm of hearing to the realm of writing. Thus sentence number (d) has to be the last sentence. It is for this very reason, the most appropriate beginning for the sentence has to be sentence (b) which talks about how a word initially enters the spoken language. The next logical sentence after that should be sentence (c) which says how the dictionary takes note of it and makes a note of it on a citation slip. After this sentence (a) is the most apt because it talks about how the lexicographer collects the slips when a dictionary is being edited. The final sentence has to be sentence (d) which says, "The word then passes from the realm of hearing to the realm of writing." Therefore, the correct answer is option (d) which is "bcad". The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer as (b). The answer was subsequently corrected by the CLAT 2014 Organizing University. NUMERICAL ABILITY 41. The next number in the sequence is : 19, 29, 37, 43,..... (A) 45 (B) 47 (C) 50 (D) 53 This question has multiple answers. The Answer Key states the answer to be (d), i.e. 53. Though the answer 53 is right if the prime number logic is followed, another logical way to decode the sequence is by calculating the difference between the numbers. 19 and 29 have a difference of 10; 29 and 37 have a difference of 8; 37 and 43 have a difference of 6. Following this pattern, the next number and 43 should have a difference of 4. Therefore, the answer can also be 47, which is option (B). The CLAT 2014 Organizing University subsequently acknowledged this error and granted marks to all those who marked either of the two. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 76. Which of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites? (A) Earth (B) Mars (C) Jupiter (D) Saturn The correct answer is (D). According to the NASA website, 10 Saturn has 53 moons (with another 9 awaiting confirmation of discovery) and Jupiter has 50 moons (with another 17 awaiting confirmation of discovery.) As moons awaiting confirmation cannot be taken into account, Saturn has the highest number of moons. The Answer Key incorrectly http://solarsystem.nasa.gov/planets/profile.cfm?Display=Moons Updated last in March 2015 10 states the answer to be (C), Jupiter. The answer was subsequently corrected by the CLAT 2014 Organizing University. LOGICAL REASONING Directions for Question 119 to 123: Read the information given below to answer the questions. (i) In a family of six persons, there are people from three generations. Each person has separate profession and also each one likes different colors. There are two couples in the family. (ii) Charan is a CA and his wife neither is a doctor nor likes green colour. (iii) Engineer likes red colour and his wife is a teacher (iv) Vanita is mother-in-law of Namita and she likes orange color. (v) Mohan is grandfather of Raman and Raman, who is a principal, likes black colour. (vi) Sarita is granddaughter of Vanita and she likes blue colour. Sarita's mother likes white colour. 122. How many ladies are there in the family? (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) None of these This question is wrongly framed, due to which it is impossible to correctly answer. From the information in the question, one cannot deduce whether Raman is a lady or a man. If Raman is assumed to be a man, (b) would be correct. But if Raman is assumed to be a lady, (c) would be correct. The Answer Key states the answer to be (b). Directions for Question 131: Study the sequence/pattern of letters or numbers carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and answer what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence 'A,C,E,G,?' has odd numbered letters of alphabet; therefore, the next item must be 'I'. 131. 0,3,8,15,? (A) 24 (B) 26 (C) 35 (D) None This question has multiple answers. (A) would be the correct answer if the pattern of adding +3, +5, +7, +9 is applied to the series. (B) is also correct if the pattern of adding consecutive odd prime numbers is applied to the series (0+3=3, 3+5=8, 8+7=15, 15+11=26). Therefore it has two right answers. The Answer Key states the answer to be (A). The CLAT 2014 Organizing University subsequently acknowledged the error and decided to award marks to students for both option. Directions for Question 145: Two statements are given below followed by two conclusions (I and II). You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the conclusions, if, any, follow from the given statements. 145. Statements: All good hockey players are in the Indian Hockey Team 'X' is not a good hockey player. Conclusions: (I) 'X' is not in the Indian Hockey Team. (II) 'X' wants to be in the Indian Hockey Team (A) Only (I) follows (B) Only (II) follows (C) Both (I) and (II) follows (D) Neither (I) nor (II) follows The given statement is "All good hockey players are in the Indian Hockey Team." This does not mean that 'not good/bad' players cannot be part of the Indian Hockey Team. (Illustration: There are 11 players in the Indian Hockey Team but only 7 good players are available in India. This means that the rest four could be 'not good/bad' also.) Hence, (D) is the correct answer. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (A). It would have been correct had the first statement been "Only good Hockey players are in the Indian Hockey Team." The CLAT 2014 Organizing University subsequently acknowledged this and corrected the answer. CLAT 2015 ENGLISH Question Id : 1703 Regrettably [A] / Regretfully [B] I have to decline your invitation. The critics censored [A] / censured [B] the new movie because of its social unacceptability. He was besides [A] / beside [B] himself with range when I told him what I had done. Anita had a beautiful broach [A]/brooch [B] on the lapel of her jacket. He has the same capacity as an adult to consent [A] / assent [R to surgical treatment. Options : (A): BABBA (B): BBAAB (C): ABBBA (D): BBAAB None of the options are correct. The Answer Key incorrectly states the correct answer to be (A). However, the word choice for the first sentence should be "censured [B]" and not "censored [A]". Critics often do not possess the power to censor a movie. Hence, Option A cannot be the answer. Other options cannot be the correct answers as well, due to not having the correct sequence of options for each sentence. DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences. Question Id : 1707 A) I must run fast to catch up with him B) The newly released book is enjoying a popular run. C) The doctor is on a hospital round. D) You can't run over him like that. Options : (A): A and (B): D only (C): A, C and D (D): A only The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be [B]. However, all the sentences, (A, B, C, D) are grammatically correct. Hence, this question is incorrect. Question Id : 1708 A) The letter was posted to the address. B) Your stand is beyond all reasons. C) How do you deal with friend who doesn't listen to a reason? D) My wife runs profitable business in this suburb. Options : (A): A only (B): D only (C): B and C (D): C and D B, C and D are grammatically incorrect sentences. B should be "Your stand is beyond all reason"; C should be "How do you deal with a friend who doesn't listen to reason?" and D should be "My wife runs a profitable business in this suburb." Hence, the correct answer can be [C] or [D]. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be [D]. Question Id : 1730 This government has given subsidies to the Navratnas but there is no telling whether the subsequent one will do. Options : (A): whether the subsequent government will do so (B): if the government to follow will accept the policy (C): if the government to follow will adhere to the policy (D): no telling whether the subsequent one will do so Option [D] would be the correct replacement for the underlined phrase. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be [A]. This option would result in the sentence "This government has given subsidies to the Navratnas but there is whether the subsequent government will do so", which is grammatically incorrect. DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION: In the question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by a pair of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair. Question Id : 1733 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Dulcet : Raucous Options : (A): Sweet : Song (B): Crazy : Insane (C): Palliative : Exacerbating (D): Theory : Practical The relationship between Dulcet and Raucous is that of antonyms. Accordingly, the appropriate answers can be "Palliative : Exacerbating" or "Theory : Practical". The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be [B], despite "Crazy: Insane" in fact being synonyms and not antonyms. While 'dulcet' is often used in an ironical sense opposite to its literal meaning in certain contexts, the literal meaning of the word remains a sweet or soothing sound. Every dictionary for the English language prescribes this meaning for the word. Therefore, in the absence of any context, the candidates cannot be expected to assign a contextual meaning to the word that belies its literal meaning. Hence, 'dulcet' cannot be seen as synonymous with 'raucous' in the context of this question. Question Id : 1736 DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In view of the passage given below. Choose the best option for question. When talks come to how India has done for itself in 50 years of Independence, the world has nothing but praise for our success in remaining a democracy. On other fronts, the applause is less loud. In absolute terms, India has not done too badly, of course, life expectancy has increased. So has literacy. Industry, which was barely a fledging, has grown tremendously. And as far as agriculture is concerned, India has been transformed from a country perpetually on the edge of starvation into a success story held up for others to emulate. But these are competitive times when change is rapid, and to walk slowly when the rest of the world is running is almost as bad as standing still on walking backwards. Compared developing with large world chunks South of Korea, what was then Singapore, the Malaysia, Thailand, Indonesia, China and what was till lately a separate Hong Kong-India has fared abysmally. It began with a far better infrastructure than most of these countries had. It suffered hardly or not at all during the Second World War. It had advantages like an English speaking elite, quality scientific manpower (including a Nobel laureate and others who could be ranked among the world's best) and excellent business acumen. Yet, today, when countries are ranked according to their global competitiveness, it is tiny Singapore that figures at the top. Hong Kong is an export powerhouse. So is Taiwan. If a symbol were needed of how far we have fallen back, note that while Korean Cielos are sold in India, no one is South Korea is rushing to buy an Indian car. The reasons list themselves. Topmost is economic isolationism. The government discouraged imports and encouraged selfsufficiency. Whatever the aim was, the result was the creation of a totally inefficient industry that failed to keep pace with global trends and, therefore, became absolutely uncompetitive. Only when the trade gates were opened a little did this become apparent. The years since then have been spent in merely trying to catch up. That the government actually sheltered its industrialists from foreign competition is a little strange. For in all other respects, it operated under the conviction that businessmen were little more than crooks how were to be prevented from entering the most important areas of the economy, how were to be hamstrung in as many ways as possible, how were to be tolerated in the same way as an inexcisable wart. The high expropriatory rates taxation, the licensing laws, the reservation of whole swathes of industry for the public sector, and the granting of monopolies to the public sector firms were the principle manifestations of this attitude. The government forgot that before wealth could be distributed, it had to be created. The government forgot that it itself could not create, but only squander wealth. Some of the manifestations of the old attitude have changed. Tax rates have fallen. Licensing has been all but abolished. And the gates of global trade have been opened wide. But most of these changes were first by circumstances partly by the foreign exchange bankruptcy of 1991 and the recognition that the government could no longer muster the funds of support the public sector, leave alone expand it. Whether the attitude of the government itself, or that of more than handful of ministers, has changed, is open to question. In many other ways, however, the government has not changed one with. Business still has to negotiate a welter of negotiations. Transparency is still a longer way off. And there is no exit policy. In defending the existing policy, politicians betray an inability to see beyond their noses. A no-exit policy for labour is equivalent to a noentry policy for new business. I f one industry is not allowed to retrench labour, other industries will think a hundred times before employing new labour. In other ways too, the government hurts industries. Public sector monopolies like the department of telecommunications and Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. make it possible for Indian business to operate only at a cost several times that of their counterparts abroad. The infrastructure is in a shambles partly because it is unable to formulate a sufficiently remunerative policy for private business, and partly because it does not have the stomach to change market rates for services. After a burst of activity in the early nineties, the government is dragging its feet. At the rate it is going, it will be another fifty years before the government realizes that a pro-business policy is the best pro-people policy. By then of course, the world would have moved even farther ahead. Sub questions Question Id : 1744 One of the factors of the government's protectionist policy was...... Options : (A): encouragement of imports (B): discouragement of imports (C): encouragement of exports (D): discouragement of exports Wrong Answer: As per the reading of the passage ("That the government actually sheltered its industrialists from foreign competition is a little strange"), the correct answer should be Option (B). The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (D). Question Id : 1746 According to the writer..... Options : (A): India's politicians are myopic in their vision of the country's requirements. (B): India's politicians are busy lining their pockets. (C): India's politicians are not conversant with the needs of the present scenario. (D): All of the above. The question is incorrect. The passage does not have any reference to "politicians", it has only talked about the "Government" and to extrapolate Government to all Politicians will be incorrect. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Question Id : 1766 Which among the following is the world's largest ecommerce company? Options : (A): Amazon (B): eBay (C): Alibaba (D): Flipkart This question has multiple Answers: The term "largest ecommerce company" is vague. It could refer to largest in terms of Revenue in which case the answer will be Amazon and it could also mean largest in terms of Market Cap in which case it will be Alibaba. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be [A], whereas [C] could also be the answer and those students opting for it ought to have been given marks for it. Question Id : 1770 Which one of the following is essentially a solo dance nowadays performed in group as well? Options : (A): Kuchipudi (B): Kathak (C): Manipuri (D): Mohiniattam This question has multiple Answers: Both Option (B) and Option (D) are correct answers. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be [D]. LEGAL APTITUDE Question Id : 1825 PRINCIPLE: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests. FACT: Mr. X who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he is of unsound mind. Y came to know about this fact afterwards and now wants to file a suit against Mr. X. Options : (A): Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he entered into contract. (B): Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound mind at the time of contract. (C): Mr. X can enter into a contract but the burden is on Mr. X to prove that he was of unsound mind at the time of contract. (D): None of the above. This question could have multiple answers: A plain reading of the question will reveal that bearing just the principle in mind, options (A), (B) and (C) can all be the answers to the question. In any case, the principle is inappropriate as it only says about the mind being sound. It does not specify its consequences or remedies. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be [C]. Question Id : 1826 PRINCIPLE: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal. FACT: "Ramanuj telegrammed to the Shyamsunder, writing: "will you sell me your Rolls Royce CAR? Telegram the lowest cash price." Shyamsunder replied, too by telegram: 'Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 lacs.' Ramanuj immediately sends his consent through telegram stating: 'I agree to buy the CAR for Rs. 20 laks asked by you.' Now Shyamsunder refused to sell the CAR. Options : (A): He cannot refuse to sell the CAR because the contract has already been made. (B): He can refuse to sell the CAR because it was only invitation to offer and not the real offer. (C): It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent. (D): None of the above. This question has multiple answers: Both Option (B) and Option (C) can be the correct answers. The given correct answer also uses terms like 'invitation to offer' and 'real offer' which have not been defined in the principle. The Answer Key states that the correct answer is [B]. Question Id : 1828 PRINCIPLE: Nuisance as a tort (civil wrong) means an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. FACT: During the scarcity of onions, long queues were made outside the defendant's shop who having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 Kg. of onion per ration card. The queues extended on to the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighboring shops. The neighboring shopkeepers brought an action for nuisance against the defendant. Options : (A): The defendant is liable for nuisance (B): The defendant was not liable for nuisance (C): The defendant was liable under the principle of strict liability (D): The plaintiff's suit should be decreed in his favour One of the primary constituents of nuisance is unlawful interference with enjoyment. In the above facts, the interference cannot be said to be unlawful as he had a licence to sell rationed commodities in light of the scarcity. Hence, the correct answer is option (B). This question has been copied from CLAT 2013 where the answer was (B). The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (A). Question Id : 1829 PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law. FACT: A takes his son B who is three years old, for a bath to the well. He throws his son inside the well so that he could have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also jumped in the well to take a bath and take his son out of the well. Both were rescued by the villagers but his son was found dead. Options : (A): A has committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder (B): A has committed murder (C): A has done no offence as he can plead the defence of unsoundness of mind (D): A's family should be responsible for this incident to let him to take child to the well The question has been copied from CLAT 2012 paper. The Question is wrongly framed as it does not mention A's state of mind at all. Further, the definition of 'culpable homicide amounting to murder' is not supplied to the student. Those in the legal fraternity are aware of the nuanced distinction between Option A and B, rendering it impossible for a law aspirant to reason out the answer. Therefore, the Question is too ambiguous, and thereby erroneous. The Answer Key incorrectly states that the answer is option (C). Question Id : 1832 PRINCIPLE: Preparation is not an offence except the preparation of some special offences. FACT: Ramesh keeps poisoned halua in his house, wishing to kill Binoy whom he invited to a party and to whom he wishes to give it. Unknown to Ramesh, his only son takes the halua and dies. In this case Options : (A): Ramesh is liable for the murder. (B): He is not liable for murder since it is a preparation alone. (C): He is liable for culpable homicide (D): None of the above This question has multiple answers: "Special offences" are not defined in the question and hence both Choice (B) and Choice (D) can be correct. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (B). Question Id : 1836 PRINCIPLE: "Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation." FACT: Jeevan and Pavan were neighbours in a residential locality. Pavan started a typing class in a part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jeevan who could not put up with any kind of continuous noise. He filed a suit against Pavan. Options : (A): Pavan is liable, because he should not have started typing class in his house (B): Pavan is liable, because as a neighbour, he should have realised Jeevan's delicate nature (C): Pavan is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other than Jeevan (D): None of the above. Wrong Answer: The same question has previously appeared in previous entrance exams of NLSIU (1996) and NALSAR (1998) and at both instances, the answer was Option (C). It is a question of reasonability and surrounding situation. Only one person is getting disturbed. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer as (D). Question Id : 1849 DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Read the definition and elements of the attempt, apply them on the given fact situations and answer the question: Definition of Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that "there is no doubt that there is difference between preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt, but if the actual transaction has commenced which would have ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is clearly an attempt to commit the crime." 1. Fault element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and 2. Conduct Element: does any act towards its commission and has crossed the stage of preparation. This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the commission that it fails in object because of facts not known to him or because of circumstances beyond his control. Sub questions Question Id : 1850 'RANI' ran to a well stating that she would jump into it, and she started running towards the well but she was caught before she could reach it. Options : (A): She is not guilty of attempt to commit suicide because she might have changed her mind before jumping into the well. (B): She is guilty of attempt to commit suicide (C): Right to life includes rights right to die hence a person should not be held responsible for attempt to commit suicide. (D): None of the above. Wrong Answer: A plain reading of the principle would lead to Option (B) as the right answer as the facts fit into the principle directly. Option (A) is the correct answer only on application of the Doctrine of Locus Potentiae, which is not explained in the problem and therefore unreasonable to expect law aspirants to be aware of. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (A). LOGICAL REASONING DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : W, X, Y, and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. 500, and a record player. Z originally had a cycle and a walkman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y. Z get a camera costing Rs. 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z's cycle. Z gave his walkman to W. Question Id : 1882 The amount of price of all the things remaining with the four persons lie between: Options : 1. (A): Rs. 800-Rs. 900 2. (B): Rs. 10000-12000 3. (C): Rs. 9000-Rs. 10000 4. (D): Rs. 10000-Rs. 11000 As per calculations, the price of all the things remaining with the four persons would amount to (4900 + 1500 + 2700 + 2700) which is equal to 11800, therefore answer would be (B). The Answer Key incorrectly states that the answer is (D). Question Id : 1884 Among the things exchanged, which one faced the highest exchange value in percentage term. Options : (A): Cricket Eat (B): Record Player (C): Camera (D): Cycle Solving the question gives "(B): Record Player" as the answer. The Answer Key incorrectly states that the answer is (D). Question Id : 1885 DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Read the following information and choose the best option. Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially, the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his /her "sources'. I f the person has two sources, thenhe /she compares the answer-keys obtained for both sources. I f the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he /she copies the source's answer into his /her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his /her answer key. The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. This data represents question numbers. Na Wrong Blank me A B C D E F G H Answer(s) 46 96 27,56 17 46,90 14,46 25 46,92 Answer(s) --46,90,25 17,46,90 ------92,90 ----- I 27 17,26,90 Sub questions Question Id : 1886 Which one of the following must have two sources? Options : 1. (A): A 2. (B): B 3. (C): C 4. (D): D Question Id : 1887 How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer keys before C could make his answer key? Options : 1. (A): 2 2. (B): 3 3. (C): 4 4. (D): 5 Question Id : 1888 Both G and H were sources to .... Options : 1. (A): F 2. (B): B 3. (C): A 4. (D): None of the above Question Id : 1889 Which of the following statement is true? Options : 1. (A): introduced the wrong answer to question 27 2. (B): E introduced the wrong answer to question 46 3. (C): F introduced the wrong answer to question 14 4. (D): H introduced the wrong answer to question 46 Question Id : 1890 Which of the following two groups of people has identical sources? (I) A, D and G (II) E and H Options : 1. (A): Only (I) 2. (B): Only (II) 3. (C): Neither (I) nor (II) 4. (D): Both (I) and (II) This data for Questions with Id numbers 1886 to 1890 is wrong. The question is picked up from CAT 2003 but copied wrongly hence becoming unsolvable. The data given in the table is wrong. For the person 'I', the numbers of the blanks answers should be 17, 46, 90 instead of 17, 26, 90. 'I' could not have left answer 26 (instead of 46 as per the source question) blank, due to the fact that no other person has answer 26 mentioned in their data sets. Due to the typographical error in the data, Question ID 1886 is impossible to answer, while with regard to the other four questions, it is very difficult to reach a conclusive solution due to the wrong information provided. DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the best option which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements. Sub questions Question Id : 1902 A. Traffic congestion increases carbon monoxide in the environment. B. Increase in carbon monoxide is hazardous to health. C. Traffic congestion is hazardous to health. D. Some traffic congestion does not cause increase carbon monoxide. E. Some traffic congestion is not hazardous to health Options : (A): CBA (B): BIDE (C): CDE (D): BAC Correct answer should be (D). Statement C can be concluded from Statements A and B. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (A). Statement A cannot be concluded from Statements B and C. Question Id : 1904 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. All software companies employ knowledge workers. B. Infotech employees are knowledge workers. C. Infotech is a software company. D. Some software companies employ knowledge workers. E. Infotech employs only knowledge workers. Options : (A): ABC (B): ACB (C): CDB (D): ACE None of the options are correct. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (B). (B) is incorrect as Statement B need not follow from A and C. All Infotech employees may not be knowledge workers. Question Id : 1905 DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Read the following information carefully to choose best option for the question: A. 'L%M' means that M is brother of L. B. 'L x M' means that L is mother of M. C. 'L?A' means that L is the sister of M. D. 'L = M' means that M is father of L. Sub questions Question Id : 1906 Which of the following means "I is the nephew of Q?" 1. Q%J=I 2. Q?MxB%I 3. C?I=B%Q Options : (A): Only 3 (B): Only 1 (C): Only 2 (D): None of the above The statement "2" clearly explains that I is a male and he is the brother of B. The mother of I and B is M, who has a sister Q. So clearly, statement 2 says that "I is the nephew of Q. Option (C) should be the correct answer. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be D. Question Id : 1907 If 'A $ B' means that A is the father of B, 'A B' means that A is the mother of B, 'A C B' means that A is the wife of B, then which of the following means that M is the grand-mother of N? Options : (A): M * R $ T @ N (B): M * R @ T @ N (C): M * T $ N @ R (D):M * T $ N @ R Options (C) and (D) are same. The Answer Key states the correct answer to be (D). Question Id : 1912 DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the following question some capital alphabets are written in a row, below them their coding has been given. In the question, a particular word has been coded in a particular manner using codes as given below the capital letters. You have to understand the pattern of coding and have to answer the question asked subsequently. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z U a 2 V b w 3 T 4 x s y 5 z 6 c d 8 7 e r h 9 l p q Question Id : 1914 If FASHION is z64t7w, then POSITION is? Options : (A): z 6 4 e 4 7 6 c (B): z 6 4 e 4 7 c 6 (C): c 6 7 4 e 4 6 z (D): c 6 7 4 e 4 z 6 The word "FASHION" is a seven-letter word, but the corresponding core has 6 alpha-numerical digits. Thus, the question is unsolvable. Question Id : 1921 From the word 'LAPAROSCOPY', how many independent meaningful English words can be made without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once? Options : (A): 1 (B): 2 (C): 3 (D): 4 The correct answer should be option (C). The words are LAP, PAR, COPY. The Answer Key incorrectly states the answer to be (B). CLAT 2015 PG TEST PAPER CONSTITUTIONAL LAW Question Id : 277 Assertion (A): - An accused person cannot be compelled to be witness against himself. Reason (R): - An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression. Options: (A): Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A (According to official answer key, this is the correct answer) 2. (B): Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A 3. (C): A is true but R is false 4. (D): A is false but R is true The given answer of this question is incorrect. As per an 11-judge bench of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the case of The State Of Bombay vs Kathi Kalu Oghad And Others, 1961 AIR SC 1808, "(g)iving thumb impressions or impressions of foot or palm or fingers or specimen writings or showing parts of the body by way of identification were not included in the expression 'to be a witness'". Hence, it was held by the court that "there was no infringement of Art. 20(3) of the Constitution in compelling an accused person to give his specimen handwriting or signature, or impressions of his thumb, fingers, palm or foot to the investigating officer or under orders of a court for the purposes of comparison." Therefore, the Assertion in the question is clearly incorrect, and consequently, (A) cannot be the correct answer. Question Id : 279 Assertion (A): proclamation The of President emergency of under India can Article issue 352(1) a of Constitution on the advice of the Prime Minister. Reason (R): Where a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the President may suspend the operation of all fundamental rights except Articles 20 & 21 of Constitution. Options: 1. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A (According to official answer key, this is the correct answer) 3. A is true but R is false 4. A is false but R is true The given answer to this question is incorrect. As per Article 352(3) of the Constitution of India, a proclamation of emergency can be made by the President under Article 352(1) only on the advice "of the Union Cabinet (that is to say, the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank under Article 75) ". Hence, the Assertion in the question is false, and therefore, (B) is incorrect. OTHER LAW SUBJECTS Question Id : 322 Principle: A man must not make such use of his property as unreasonably and unnecessarily to cause inconvenience to his neighbors. Fact: Mr. Z is the owner of a plot measuring 50 feet by 80 feet. He constructed a small house at one corner and was using the rest of the land as a cow shed. He had 20 cows and is involved in selling milk to the public. The cow dung and other wastes were openly stored in a small 10 feet by 8 feet tank. This constantly paved the way for bad smell and breeding of mosquitoes. Mrs. Y, his neighbor, constantly complained to X, but in vain. Options: (A): Y cannot take any other action against Z. (According to official answer key, this is the correct answer) 2. (B): Z can do something to prevent the foul smell. (C): Y can complain to the police (D): Y can sue Z for damages based on the inconvenience caused by Z. The given answer to this question is incorrect. Nuisance is a criminal offence (as per section 133 of the Criminal Procedure Code) as well as an offence under tort law. Since the cow dung and other wastes are being stored in an open tank, this can be seen as an unreasonable and unnecessary use of property to the inconvenience of his neighbours; a reasonable use would have been the employment of a closed tank. Hence, not only is (A) the incorrect answer, but (B), (C) and (D) are all appropriate responses to the question. 2. QUESTIONS REQUIRING PRIOR LEGAL KNOWLEDGE CLAT 2008 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 95. Ever greening of patents means (a) granting patents in perpetuity (b) granting patents for 100 years (c) granting protection to incremental inventions having no substantial significance (d) patenting of green technology It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to intellectual property law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 118. The person appointed by two parties to settle a dispute is known as: (a) Judge (b) Arbitrator (c) Solicitor (d) Conciliator This questions tests the knowledge of highly specialized concepts in the field of law. Such a technical question does not qualify as a matter of general knowledge or current affairs. 119. Right to travel is a fundamental right under (a) Article 19 of the Constitution (b) Article 21 of the Constitution (c) Article 14 of the Constitution (d) None of the above It is submitted that this question tests technical knowledge pertaining to the field of law, and cannot be seen as a matter of general knowledge that an aspiring law candidate who has not yet begun the study of law will be aware of. 121. Legal aid for an accused is (a) Fundamental right (b) legal right (c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Discretion of State It is submitted that this question tests technical knowledge pertaining to the field of law, and cannot be seen as a matter of general knowledge that an aspiring law candidate who has not yet begun the study of law will be aware of. 128. The Supreme Court upheld Mandal Commission Report in (a) Bommai v. Union of India (b) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (c) Unnikrishnan v. Union of India (d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India It is submitted that this question tests technical knowledge pertaining to the field of law, and cannot be seen as a matter of general knowledge that an aspiring law candidate who has not yet begun the study of law will be aware of. 129. Under our Constitution, right to property is (a) fundamental right (b) basic structure of the Constitution (c) Constitutional right (d) a mere legal right It is submitted that this question tests technical knowledge pertaining to the field of law, and cannot be seen as a matter of general knowledge that an aspiring law candidate who has not yet begun the study of law will be aware of. 131. Right to education emanates from: (a) right to culture and education under Articles 29 and 30 (b) right to equality under Article 14 (c) freedom of speech & expression under Article 19 (d) right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 It is submitted that this question tests technical knowledge pertaining to the field of law, and cannot be seen as a matter of general knowledge that an aspiring law candidate who has not yet begun the study of law will be aware of. CLAT 2009 LEGAL APTITUDE 112. Private international law is also called (a) Civil Law (b) Local laws (c) Conflict of laws (d) Common law It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to nomenclature of different legal systems, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 113. A nominal sum given as a. token for striking a sale is called (a) Earnest money (c) Interest (b) Advance (d) Solatium It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to law of contracts of sale, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 114. Joint heirs to a property are called (a) Co-heirs (c) Successors (b) Coparceners (d) Joint owners It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to succession law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 115. The right of a party to initiate an action and be heard before a Court of law is called (a) Right in rem (b) Right in personam (c) Fundamental right (d) Locus standi It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to legal rights, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 117. The Supreme Court held that evidence can be recorded by video-conferencing in the case ... (a) State of Maharashtra v. Prafull B. Desai (b) Paramjit Kaur v. State of Punjab (c) Pappu Yadav v. State of Bihar (d) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of Indian court judgments, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 118. When the master is held liable for the wrongful act of his servant, the liability is called (a) Strict liability (b) Vicarious liability (c) Tortous liability (d) Absolute liability It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to legal liability, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 119. The act of unlawfully entering into another's property constitutes (a) Trespass (b) Restraint (c) Appropriation (d) Encroachment It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to tort law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 121. Supreme Court held that Preamble as a basic feature of Constitution cannot be amended in the case of (a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (c) S.R.Bommai v. Union of India (d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of Indian court judgments as well as highly technical concepts pertaining to constitutional law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 123. A right to recover time barred debt is (a) Universal right (b) Perfect right (c) Imperfect right (d) Fundamental right It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to legal rights nomenclature, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 124. The law relating to prisoners of war has been codified by (a) Geneva Convention (b) Vienna Convention (c) Paris Convention (d) None of the above It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of instruments of international law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 126. When a person is prosecuted for committing a criminal offence, the burden of proof is on (a) Accused (b) Prosecution (c) Police (d) Complainant 127. Offence which can be compromised between the parties is known as (a) Non-compoundable offence (b) Cognizable offence (c) Compoundable offence (d) Non-cognizable offence It is submitted that the above two question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to criminal law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 128. Husband and wife have a right to each others company. The right is called (a) Conjugal right (b) Human right (c) Civil right (d) Fundamental right It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to family law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 129. A person 'dying intestate' means he (a) Died without legal heirs (b) Died without making a will (c) Died without any property (d) Died without a son It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to succession law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 130. If a witness makes a statement in Court, knowing it to be false, he commits the offence of (a) Forgery (b) Falsehood (c) Perjury (d) Breach of trust It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to criminal law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 131. A child born after father's death is (a) Posthumous (b) Heir (c) Intestate (d) Bastard It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to family law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 134. The offence of inciting disaffection, hatred or contempt against Government is (a) Perjury (b) Forgery (c) Sedition (d) Revolt It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to criminal law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 138. No one can be convicted twice for the same offence. This doctrine is called (a) Burden of proof (b) Double conviction (c) Double jeopardy (d) Corpus delicti It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to criminal law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 140. Which of the following is not payable to Central Government? (a) Land revenue (b) Customs duty (c) Income tax (d) Wealth tax ' It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to taxation law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 142. Who have constitutional right to audience in all Indian Courts? (a) President (b) Chief Justice of India (c) Attorney General (d) Solicitor General It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to constitutional law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 144. 'Court of Record' is a Court which? (a) Maintains records (b) Preserves all its records (c) Can punish for its contempt (d) Is competent to issue writs It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to civil procedural law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 145. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office only on grounds of (a) Gross inefficiency (c) Senility (b) Delivering wrong judgments (d)Proven misbehaviour or incapacity It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to constitutional law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 149. Every duty enforceable by law is called (a) Accountability (c) Burden (b) Obligation (d) Incidence It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to legal theory, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 151.Offence of breaking a divine idol is (a) Salus populi (b) Crime (c) Sacrilege (d) Blasphemy It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to criminal law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 152. A person who goes under-ground or evades the jurisdiction of the Court is known as (a) Offender (b) Under-ground (c) Absentee (d) Absconder It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of legal nomenclature, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 153.What is a caveat? (a) A warning (b) An injunction (c) Writ (d) Certiorari It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of legal nomenclature, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 154. Muslim religious foundations are known as (a) Din (b) Wakfs (c) Ulema (d) Quzat It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to Muslim law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. CLAT 2010 LEGAL APTITUDE 91. The manager of waqf is known as (a) Sajjadanshin (b) Khadim (c) Mutawalli (d) Mujawar It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to Muslim personal law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 96. Which of Constitution? (a) US (b) British (c) Indian (d) Australian the following constitutions is a unitary It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to constitutional law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 98. Which of the following marriages is approved by Islamic law? Between a Muslim (a) male and a Christian female (b) female and a Hindu male (c) female and a Christian male (d) female and a Jew male It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to Muslim personal law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 99. Which of the following Constitutions when framed did not provide for judicial review? (a) Indian (b) Pakistani (c) US (d) Australian It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to constitutional law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 101. 'Dyarchy' under the government of India Act 1919 meant (a) division of powers between the central and provincial government (b) separation of judiciary from executive (c) division of executive department under elected Ministers and and the members of the Governors Executive Council (d) separation between legislature and executive It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to a legislative act, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 102. Fringe tax benefit is a tax (a) paid by an employer in respect of the fringe benefits provided or deemed to be provided by an employer to his employee (b) paid by an emloyee for the benefits which he enjoys (c) paid by a person for the benefits he gets from his employer (d) paid by a member of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes for benefits which they receive from the government It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to taxation law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 103. Which of the following is not true about a criminal proceeding? (a) the court may ask to pay a fine (b) the court may transfer their ownership of the property (c) there is prosecution (d) the court may discharge the accused It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to criminal law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 107. A puisne judge of a High Court is (a) a judge other than the Chief Justice (b) the Chief Justice (c) A temporary judge (d) a retired judge It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 119. The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 2006 is applicable to (a) only Hindus (b) all Indians except Muslims as the minimum age of marriage among Muslim girls is puberty (beginning of menstruation) in Muslim personal law (c) all Irrespective of religion (d) all except Muslim, Christians and Jews It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to family law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 122. Which of the following is not the function of the International Court of Justice ? It (a) gives advisory opinion at the request of general Assembly (b)gives advisory opinion at the request of Security Council (c) interprets treaties when considering legal disputes brought before it by nations (d) decides international crimes It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to public international law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 131. 'No fault liability' means (a) liability for damage caused through negligence (b) liability for damage caused through fault (c) absolute liability even without any negligence or fault (d) freedom from liability It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to tort law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 132. An 'encumbrance in legal parlance is a (a) liability on property (b) grant of property (c) gift of property (d) restriction on property It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to property law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 133. A husband and wife have a right to each others company. This right is called (a) matrimonial right (c) marital right (b) consortium right (d) conjugal right It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of a technical concept pertaining to family law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 109. X, the servant of Y, takes a hundred rupee notes from Y's pocket and hides it under the carpet in the house of Y. X tell Z another servant of Y, about the currency note and both agree to share the money when the currency note is taken by X from the hiding place. Before X could recover the note, it was discovered by Y. Decide if an offence was committed and if so who committed the offence? (a) No offence was committed (b) Only X committed the offence (c) Both X and Z committed the offence (d) Only Z committed the offence This question does not specify anywhere what is meant by an 'offence' or how is it determined. It does not spell out any guiding legal principle to apply to the fact situation in order to arrive at a solution either. In the absence of this information about what constitutes an offence, it is difficult to determine whether an offence was committed or not, unless the student has prior knowledge of the law of conspiracy, etc. It is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 120. X, a shopkeeper, leaves a sealed 5 kilogram bag of a branded wheat flour at the door of Y with a note you will like this quality wheat flour and pay Rupees 100 for this bag' without being asked to do so V on coming back, collects the bag from his door, opens the seal of the bag, and uses a quarter of kilogram for making chapattis (unleavened bread). But next day returns the bag. Is he bound to pay for the bag? He is (a) not bound to pay as he did not ask shopkeeper to deliver the bag (b) bound to pay as he has opened the bag (c) bound to pay only for the quantity used (d) neither bound to pay nor return the bag The question does not spell out any guiding legal principle to apply to the fact situation in order to arrive at a solution. In the absence of such principles, it is difficult to determine the answer unless the student has prior knowledge of the contractual principles behind bailment, restitution, etc. It is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. CLAT 2012 LEGAL APTITUDE Instructions (166 to 180): Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as 'Assertion' (A) and other as 'Reason' (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers. 166. Assertion (A): A void contract is not necessarily illegal Reason (R): Every illegal contract is void. (A)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. (B)Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (C)A is true but R is false (D) A is false but R is true This questions assumes the knowledge of the difference between an illegal contract and a void contract; this is a technical concept pertaining to contract law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 179. Assertion (A): Austin's concept of law is known as imperative theory Reason (R): Austin emphasized on the commanding character of law. (A)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. (B)Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (C)A is true but R is false (D) A is false but R is true It is submitted that this questions assumes the knowledge of Austin's theories on law; this is a technical concept pertaining to jurisprudence, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on such a concept. 182. Which one of the following statements is correct? Right to free and compulsory education for all children of the age of 6 to 14 years is: (A)a fundamental right enforceable in law (B)a fundamental duty (C)a directive principle of state policy (D) a fundamental right which, however, can be enforced only if the state makes an enabling legislation It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to constitutional law and the right to education, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 183. Affirmative action connotes: I. Measures taken by the state to help the socially disadvantaged groups II. Positive discrimination III. Strict quotas for the socially and educationally backward class in school/college admissions and jobs. Which of the above mentioned is true? (A) I and II only(B) II only (C) I, II and III (D) II and III only It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to the legal definition of affirmative action, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 186. X, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him as his housekeeper. In return, B agreed to pay X Rs. 500 per month for living in adultery and Rs. 500 per month for housekeeping. The agreement is (A)Valid (B)Void (C)Void as to the first object but valid with respect to the second object (D) Unlawful as being opposed to public policy It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to contract law and the crime of adultery, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 187. Ramu applied for the post of Director in an organization. The governing body of the organization passed a resolution appointing him to the post. After the meeting, one of the members of the governing body informed him privately of the resolution. Subsequently, the resolution was rescinded. Ramu claims damages. Which one of the following is the correct legal proposition in the case? (A)Ramu cannot claim damages as he had not resigned from his existing post in anticipation of getting the appointment letter (B)Ramu cannot claim damages as there was no formal communication (C)Ramu can claim damages as governing body cannot rescind the resolution once passed (D) Ramu can claim damages as there was private communication It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to contract law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 188. The Railway authorities allowed a train to be over crowded. In consequence, a legitimate passenger Mr. X got his pocket picked. Choose the appropriate answer: (A)Mr. X can sue the Railway authorities for the loss suffered (B)Mr. X cannot sue because he had given his consent to travel in a over-crowded train (C)Mr. X cannot sue railway authorities because there was no infringement of his legal right and mere fact that the loss was caused does not give rise to a cause of action (D) None of these It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to tort law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 189. Z is carried off by a tiger. X fires at the tiger, knowing that the shot might kill Z, but with no intention to kill Z, and in good faith trying to save Z. X's shot, however, gives Z a mortal wound. Choose the correct option - (A)X has committed an offence of a grievous nature. (B)X has no moral duty to save Z therefore he can be held liable. (C)X has not committed any offence, as the act was in good faith and for the benefit of Z. (D) None of the above It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to tort law and criminal law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 190. Ms. Usha wants to file a suit against Bhagyalaxmi Theatre praying for a permanent injunction (stay order) restraining the theatre from running the film named "Jai Santoshi Maa". Her contention is that the film hurt her religious feelings and sentiments as Goddess Saraswati, Laxmi and Parvati were depicted as jealous and were ridiculed. (A)She cannot file a suit because injury to religious feelings is not a legally recognized right. (B)She cannot file a suit because the Theatre has a fundamental right to speech and expression. (C)She can file a suit as injury to religious feelings has been legally recognized as a right (injuria sine damnum) (D) It is a case of complete judicial discretion. It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 191. Match schedule one and two and choose the appropriate answerSchedule I i. Concurrent Schedule II 1. list Constitutio n of Japan ii. Rule of Law 2. Constitutio n of iii. Directive Principle of Ireland 3. British Constitutio State Policy iv. Procedure n 4. established Constitutio by law n of Australia (A) (B) (C) (D) i 1 2 1 4 ii 2 4 3 3 iii 3 3 4 2 iv 4 1 2 1 It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to Indian constitutional history, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 192. P, Q and R made a joint promise to give S a sum of Rs.3000. S recovered the whole amount from P. Q was declared insolvent and cannot give anything. Which statement out of the following is correct? (A) P cannot get anything from R.(B) P can recover Rs.1000 from R. (C) P can recover Rs.1500 from R recover Rs.2000 from R. (D) P can It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to contract law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 193. X went to Y's house and forgot his bag which contained 1 kg sweets. Y's children consumed the sweets. Decide the liability of Y. (A)Y is bound to pay the price of sweets to X (B)Y is not bound to pay anything (C)Y is bound to pay half the price of sweets. (D) Y would not have to pay anything because X loves Y's children. It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to contract law , and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 194. Which one of the following is not correct? (A)Freedom of speech and expression includes freedom of press. (B)Right to life and personal liberty includes right to carry on any trade and profession (C)Right to equality includes the principles of natural justice (D) Freedom of conscience includes the wearing and carrying of kirpans by the Sikhs It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 195. Y makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds, after opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. Choose the appropriate answer. (A)Y is not guilty of attempt to theft because the box was empty. (B)Y is guilty of attempt to commit theft. (C)Y is guilty of trespass. (D) Y is not guilty of any offence. It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to criminal law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 196. A lady wanted to get a railway ticket but finding a crowd near the ticket window at the station, asked Raju, who was near the window, to get a ticket for her and handed him money for the same. Raju took the money and instead of getting the ticket, ran away with it. What offence has been committed by Raju? (A) No offence (B) Criminal breach of trust (C) Criminal misappropriation (D) Theft It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to criminal law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 197. The Right to Equality is guaranteed by(A) Article 14 to 18 (B) Article 14 (C) Article 14 and 15 (D) Article 14, 15 and 16 It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution under the Indian Constitution, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 198. Mr. Samay was severely hurt while working in his factory and fell unconscious. He was rushed to a hospital by his fellow workers. In the hospital (at emergency/casualty ward) the doctors opined that he should be operated immediately. While conducting preliminary examinations, he was found to be HIV positive. The doctors are in a dilemma regarding what should they do first(A) Doctors should operate first (B)Doctors should inform his family members (C)Doctors should inform his employers (D) Doctors should not inform anyone because it would violate patient's right of privacy. It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to the right to privacy, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 200. In which of the following cases can a Constitutional amendment be passed just by a simple majority in Parliament? (A) Election matters (B) Change in the name and boundaries of states (C) Powers of the President (D) None of the above It is submitted that this questions tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to the the Indian Constitution, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. CLAT 2015 LEGAL APTITUDE DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : The question consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option. Sub questions Question Id : 1839 Assertion: Custom per se is law, independent of prior recognition by the sovereign or the judge. Reason: Custom is source of law but by itself is not law. Options : 1. (A): Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A 2. (B): Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A 3. (C): A is true but R is false. 4. (D): A is false but R is true. It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to customary law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. Question Id : 1858 Choose the best option for the following statement: No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since: 1. It will be violative of the right to freedom of speech and expression. 2. It will be violative of the right to freedom of conscience and practice & propagation of religion. 3. There is no legal provision obliging anyone to sing the National Anthem. Options : 1. (A): 1 and 2 are correct 2. (B): 2 and 3 are correct 3. (C): 1, 2 and 3 are correct 4. (D): None is correct It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to fundamental rights, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. Question Id : 1859 Five years' experience is a must to be able to practice as an advocate in the Supreme Court of India. This rule was prescribed by the ......... Options : 1. (A): Bar Council of India 2. (B): Supreme Court of India 3. (C): High Court of Delhi 4. (D): Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to procedural law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. Question Id : 1863 India and Britain recently signed an "extradition treaty". Extradition means Options : 1. (A): Exports without double taxation 2. (B): Order of Indian courts will apply to Indians living in the U.K. 3. (C): India and the U,K. will deport criminals on reciprocal basis to each other 4. (D): None of the above It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to international law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. Question Id : 1866 The Railway authorities allowed a train to be over-crowded. In consequence, a legitimate passenger, Mr. X got his pocket picked. Choose appropriate answerOptions : 1. (A): Mr. X can sue the railway authorities for the loss suffered. 2. (B): Mr. X cannot sue because he had given his consent to travel in a over-crowded train. 3. (C): Mr. X cannot sue the railway authorities because there was no infringement of legal right and mere fact that the loss was caused does not give rise to a cause of action. 4. (D): None of the above It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to legal liability and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. Question Id : 1867 Choose the best option for the following statement: The distinction between fraud and misrepresentation: 1. Fraud is more or less intentional wrong, whereas misrepresentation may be quite innocent. 2. In addition to rendering the contract voidable, is a cause of action in tort for damages. Simple misrepresentation is not a tort but a person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damages which he has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract. 3. A person complaining of misrepresentation can be met with the defence that he had the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence". But excepting fraud by silence in other cases of fraud it is no defence that the plaintiff had the means of discovering the truth by ordinary diligence". 4. None of the above. Options : 1. (A): 1 is correct. 2. (B): 1 & 2 are correct. 3. (C): 1, 2 & 3 are correct. 4. (D): Only 4 is correct. It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to law of contracts, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. Question Id : 1868 In a recent case a Supreme Court bench comprising of Justice Dipak Misra and Justice Prafulla C Pant held that the amount of maintenance to be awarded under Section 125 of CrPC cannot be restricted for the iddat period (three months) only as the inherent and fundamental principle behind Section 125. Also, it said that an order under Section 125 CrPC can be passed if a person, despite having sufficient means, neglects or refuses to maintain the wife. Options : 1. (A): Shamima Farooqui v. Shahid Khan 2. (B): Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum 3. (C): Hamida Bano v. Abdul Rasheed 4. (D): Abdul Kadir v. Salima It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to maintenance law as well as of court judgments, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. Question Id : 1875 Vote on accounts is meant for .......... Options : 1. (A): Vote on the report of CA.G 2. (B): To meet unforseen expenditure 3. (C): Appropriating funds pending passing of budget 4. (D): Budget It is submitted that this question tests the knowledge of technical concepts pertaining to parliamentary law, and it is not fair to test a law school aspirant, who has not begun with legal studies, on the same. 3. QUESTIONS HAVING NO NEXUS WITH APTITUDE FOR THE STUDY OF LAW CLAT 2008 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 53. Taikonaut means (a) a character in comic strips (b) a character in Russian opera (c) astronaut in China (d) a delicious Japanese dish It is submitted that this question, the answer to which is (c), is a matter of trivia which neither qualifies as a matter of public interest nor bears any nexus with legal studies CLAT 2009 LOGICAL REASONING Instructions: (questions 156-165), Each question below consists of one Assertion (A) and one Reason (R). Examine them and shade the correct answers using the Code below on the OMR Answer Sheet. Code: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 156. A: Area along the Equator records the highest temperature throughout the year. R: On the equator, days and nights are equal for the largest part of the year. 158. A: Lightning thunder and heavy rain accompany volcanic activity. R: Volcanoes throw water vapour and charged particles in the atmosphere. 159. A: Soils in some parts of Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan are saline. R: Evaporation exceeds precipitation. 160. A: The monsoons arrive suddenly in India in June. R: The monsoonal low pressure trough is well-developed over India. 164.s A: Exploitation of equatorial rain forest of Amazon basin is not easy. R: This region is very rich in several types of deadly animals and insects. 165. A: The Sea remains free from ice from British Columbia to Bering Sea. R: Air moving off the comparatively warm waters of North Pacific Drift gives the coastal areas of British Columbia a warmer climate. These questions assume prior knowledge of specialized geography and environmental sciences, which have no nexus with one's aptitude for the study of law. Further, this forms part of a section on 'logical reasoning' and yet cannot be answered without this prior specialized knowledge which not many students writing a law entrance are likely to have. It is submitted that logical reasoning skills can be tested without requiring such prior specialized knowledge in a technical subject; rather it can be tested using more universal and non-technical knowledge. CLAT 2014 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 76. Solvents are substances used to dissolve other substances. Consider the following substances (1) Water (2) Ether (3) Toulene (4) Chloroform (5) Ethanol Which of the above can be used as solvents? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3, 4 and 5 (D) All of these This question tests the knowledge of chemical sciences, and has no bearing on larger public interest as well as any nexus with one's aptitude for the study of law. Such a technical question does not qualify as a matter of general knowledge or current affairs. 79. Viruses are parasitic, having DNA/RNA; but they can be crystallised and lack of respiration. Therefore, they are treated as: (A) Living Beings (B) Non-living Beings (C) Both living and non-living beings (D) None of these This questions tests the knowledge of highly specialized concepts in the field of biological sciences, and has no bearing on larger public interest as well as any nexus with one's aptitude for the study of law. Such a technical question does not qualify as a matter of general knowledge or current affairs. 89. Which one of the following measures is NOT likely to aid in improving India's balance of payment position? (A) Promotion of import substitution policy (B) Devaluation of rupee (C) Imposition of higher tariff on imports (D) Levying the higher duty on exports This question tests the knowledge of economic concepts, and has no nexus with one's aptitude for the study of law. Such a technical question does not qualify as a matter of general knowledge or current affairs. CLAT 2015 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Question Id : 1800 The protein CA-125 (Cancer Antigen-125) is used as biomarker for detection of which type of cancer? Options : 1. (A): Ovarian cancer 2. (B): Bone cancer 3. (C): Lung cancer 4. (D): Oral cancer This question tests specialised knowledge of the medical sciences, which has no nexus with one's aptitude for the study of law. Such technical information does not qualify as a matter of general knowledge or current affairs either. 4. OTHER PROBLEMATIC QUESTIONS This section highlights questions that are problematic in that the vast majority of students are not likely to know the answer, in that they require knowledge of certain sporting activities (known only to a very minor section of rich and privileged India), and do not qualify as matters of national importance which an aspiring law student ought to know. Some of these questions are also culturally non-neutral, in that they discriminate against candidates from small towns, villages and those from marginalized/impoverished sections. CLAT 2010 LOGICAL REASONING Directions - (Q. 171 to 175) In each of the following questions, two statements are given. There may or may not be cause and effect relationship between two statements. Mark your answer using this code(a) Statement I is the cause and Statement II is the effect. (b) Statement II is the cause and Statement I is the effect. (c) Both the statements are independent causes. (d) Both the statements are independent effects. 172. Statement I: Hallmarking of gold jewellary has been made compulsory. Statement II: Many persons do not prefer to buy hallmarked jewellary. It is submitted that this question requires prior knowledge of the term 'hallmarking'. A number of students, particularly from financially less well off families may not known what 'hallmarking' really means.. Further, it is unreasonable for a law aspirant to be aware of the practice, as it is not a matter of socio-political interest that it should form part of the average general awareness of a student expected to study law. CLAT 2012 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 76. The first ever formula one race in India was held in (A) Greater Noida (B) New Delhi (C) Faridabad (D) Pune Students from financially weak backgrounds, particularly those living in small towns and villages or from impoverished/marginalised regions of India are not in the least likely to have specialized knowledge of this expensive sport, familiar to only some of privileged India's populace. CLAT 2014 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 65. Lord Buddha 's image is sometimes shown with a hand gesture, called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It signifies: (A) Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation. (B) Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara. (C) The gesture of debate or discussion/argument. (D) Both (A) and (B) are correct. This question is testing students on the knowledge of esoteric theocratic knowledge, which is not likely to be known to most students, barring those following Buddhism or those that specialize in quizzing. This knowledge hardly qualified as information of general socio-cultural awareness either, which is what the General Knowledge section must test. CLAT 2015 ENGLISH Question Id : 1732 DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by a pair of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair. Question Id : 1734 Malapropism : Words Options : 1. (A): Anachronism : Time 2. (B): Ellipsis : Sentence 3. (C): Jinjanthropism : Apes 4. (D): Catechism : Religion There is no word called 'Jinjanthropism' in the English language. Since this question is part of the English section of the test paper, the use of a non-existent word only serves to confuse the candidate trying to solve the question. Question Id : 1719 DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : For the word a contextual sentence is given. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context. Sub questions Question Id : 1724 FACETIOUS: When I suggested that war is a method of controlling population, my father remarked that I was being facetious. Options : 1. (A): Jovian 2. (B): Jovial 3. (C): Jocular 4. (D): Joking The word 'jovian' is a very rare and esoteric term and hardly used in the literature. A large variety of students are not likely to know this term. It is submitted that knowledge of the meaning of this word is not relevant to the working knowledge and command over English language. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Question Id : 1769 The winner of 2015 Malaysian Grand Prix is ____? Options : 1. (A): Sebastian Vettel 2. (B): Kimi Raikkonen 3. (C): Lewis Hamilton 4. (D): Jenson Button This question tests the knowledge of F1 Racing, which may not be available with students from all socio-economic backgrounds due to lack of exposure, and F1's reputation as an elitist sport. Moreover, the knowledge of this question doesn't concern public interest either. LEGAL APTITUDE Question Id : 1864 What is a 'moot'? Options : 1. (A): A basic point of law 2. (B): A basic fact of case 3. (C): Mock court for practice by students in general 4. (D): Another name for magistrate's court Option (C) is not the dictionary meaning of the word 'moot', but instead refers to its contextual meaning within law schools. That meaning is likely to be known only by students with a law background or who have friends or family members studying in law schools. The nexus of a specific law school activity with the legal aptitude of an aspiring law student is unclear as well. As noted earlier, CLAT should test for one's aptitude for the study of law, and not prior knowledge of the law itself, or of the legal profession, or of law schools or the student activities within. 5. QUESTIONS WITH UNCLEAR INSTRUCTIONS CLAT 2012 LEGAL APTITUDE 159. Principle: Injuria Sine Damnum i.e. Injury (violation of legal right) without damage Facts: X, who was the returning officer at a polling booth in Amethi, wrongly refused to register a duly tendered vote of Y in the recent UP elections, even though Y was an eligible voter. The candidate in whose favour Y wanted to vote, was declared elected. Give the appropriate answer(A) Y can sue X on the ground that he was denied the right to cast vote, which is a fundamental right. (B)Y can sue X on the ground that he was denied the right to cast vote, which is a legal right (C)Y cannot sue X because there is no injury or damage caused to Y (D) Y cannot sue X because the candidate in whose favor he wanted to vote was declared elected. There has been no elaboration of the principle mentioned in the question, due to which it is difficult to apply the principle effectively to the facts to arrive at a correct solution. CLAT 2013 LEGAL APTITUDE 176. Principle Whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman or animal shall punished. Facts Two adult men were found engaged in carnal intercourse by the police. The police arrested the men and produced them before the court. (a) Court will punish the police officer who arrested the men (b) Court will not punish the men for they were adults (c) Court will punish the men (d) Court may be requested to declare the law unconstitutional The Principle does not define what constitutes 'carnal intercourse against the order of nature'; neither do the facts specify if the carnal intercourse that the two adult men engaged in was against the order of nature. There is, thus, lack of clarity about material facts in the question. CLAT 2015 LEGAL APTITUDE Question Id : 1824 PRINCIPLE: injuria sine damnum i.e. injury without damage. FACT: SONU, who was a returning officer at a polling booth, wrongly refused to register a duly tendered vote of MONU, though he was a qualified voter. The candidate, whom MONU sought to vote, was declared elected. Options : 1. (A): MONU can sue SONU on the ground that he was denied to cast vote, which is a fundamental right. 2. (B): MONU can sue SONU on the ground that he was denied to cast vote, which is a legal right. 3. (C): MONU cannot sue SONU because there is no injury or damage cause to MONU. 4. (D): MONU cannot sue SONU because to whom he sought to vote was declared elected. The principle merely states a Latin legal phrase and its English meaning, without giving out its legal ramification or the rules for its application, without which it is not possible to apply the principle to the given facts. Question Id : 1830 PRINCIPLE: ignorantia juris non excusat and ingnorantia facit excusat. FACT: George was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane landed at the airport at Bombay on 28th Nov. 1962 it was found on search that George carried 34 legs of gold bars in person and that he had not declared it in the 'Manifest for transit'. On 26th Nov. 1962 Government of India issued a notification and modified its earlier exemption and now it is necessary that, the gold must be declared in the "Manifest" of the aircraft. Options : 1. (A): George cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification issued only two days ago. 2. (B): George cannot be prosecuted because it is mistake of fact which is excusable. S. (C): George's will be prosecuted because mistake of law is not excusable. 4. (D): George liability would depend on the discretion of the court The principle merely states a Latin legal phrase, without giving out its meaning or the rules for its application, without which it is not possible to apply the principle to the given facts. Question Id : 1835 PRINCIPLE: Any direct physical interference with the goods in somebody's possession without lawful justification is called trespass to goods. FACT: A purchased a car from a person who had no title to it and had sent it to a garage for repair. X, believing, wrongly, that the car was his, removed it from the garage. Options : 1. (A): X can be held responsible for trespass to goods. 2. (B): X cannot be held responsible for trespass to good as he was under a wrong belief. 3. (C): X has not committed any wrong. 4. (D): None of the above. In this question, the principle doesn't mention if wrong belief can be lawful justification or not interference with somebody's goods. for direct physical 6. MINOR ERRORS CLAT 2009 ENGLISH 29. The Cinema Hall was on fire and the Cinema owner had to send the .....Fire Brigade (a) for (b) through (c) off (d) in The blank space provided in the question must appear after 'send'. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 81. Savannath grasslands are found in (a) North America (b) Africa (c) Australia (d) East Asia In this question, 'Savannah' has been wrongly spelled, thereby changing the meaning of the question by asking for the location of a non-existent grassland. CLAT 2011 LEGAL APTITUDE Rule E: 'A discriminatory act shall be justified if its effect is to promote the well-being of disadvantaged groups, such as women, dalits, religious minorities, sexual minorities or disabled persons'. 168. Would you first Order of release of all women prisoners be justified under Rule E? (a) Yes, because it promotes the well-being of women. (b) No, because it does not promote the well-being of women prisoners (c) No, because it does not promote the well-being of all disadvantaged groups equally. (d) None of the above. The question has been framed in a terrible manner in terms of grammar, because of which it is difficult to understand. Rule B: When a State undertakes any measure, everyone affected must have an equal them to be benefit from it. [This is the Rule applicable to Qs. 179-181] The usage of the word 'them' in the rule is clearly incorrect, and has been wrongly substituted for something else. The word 'be' in the rule is also superfluous, and is dispensable. Due to the improper construction of the rule, its meaning has been compromised and left difficult to understand. CLAT 2013 ENGLISH Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Given below are a few foreign language phrases, which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it in the OMR sheet. 32. Quantum wmifactus (a) The amount of damage suffered (b) The amount of damage caused (c) The amount of damage paid (d) The amount of damage received The question incorrectly spells 'quantum ramifactus' as 'quantum wmifactus', thereby virtually meaning of the question for the candidates. changing the Annexure P-14 WIDESPREAD COPYING/PLAGIARISM IN CLAT Prepared by Vineet Bhalla CLAT 2009 A total of 58 questions, or 29% of the total test paper, was found to be plagiarized from just two sources. Among these, 48 out of 50 questions in the Legal Aptitude Section, that is, 96% of the entire section was found to be plagiarized from the Legal Aptitude questions in a single preparation book, which is M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008). ENGLISH Instruction: (Questions 1.10), Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet. There is a fairly universal sentiment that the use of nuclear weapons is clearly contrary to morality and that its production probably so, does not go far enough. These activities are not only opposed to morality but also to law if the legal objection can be added to the moral, the argument against the use and the manufacture of these weapons will considerably be reinforced. Now the time is ripe to evaluate the responsibility of scientists who knowingly use their expertise for the construction of such weapons, which has deleterious effect on mankind. To this must be added the fact that more than 50 percent of the skilled scientific manpower in the world is now engaged in the armaments industry. How appropriate it is that all this valuable skill should be devoted to the manufacture of weapons of death in a world of poverty is a question that must touch the scientific conscience. A meeting of biologists on the Long-Term Worldwide Biological consequences of nuclear war added frightening dimension to those forecasts. Its report suggested that the long biological effects resulting from climatic changes may at least be as serious as the immediate ones. Sub-freezing temperatures, low light levels, and high doses of ionizing and ultraviolet radiation extending for many months after a large-scale nuclear war could destroy the biological support system of civilization, at least in the Northern Hemisphere. Productivity in natural and agricultural ecosystems could be severely restricted for a year or more. Post war survivors would face starvation as well as freezing conditions in the dark and be exposed to near lethal doses of radiation. If, as now seems possible, the Southern Hemisphere were affected also, global disruption of the biosphere could ensue. In any event, there would be severe consequences, even in the areas not affected directly, because of the interdependence of the world economy. In either case the extinction of a large fraction of the earth's animals, plants and microorganism seems possible. The population size of Homo sapiens conceivably could be reduced to prehistoric levels or below, and extinction of the human species itself cannot be excluded. 1. Choose the word, which is most opposite in meaning of the word, printed in bold as used in the passage Deleterious. (a) Beneficial (b) Harmful (c) Irreparable (d) Non-cognizable 2. The author's most important objective of writing the above passage seems to (a) Highlight the use of nuclear weapons as an effective population control measures. (b) Illustrate the devastating effects of use of nuclear weapons on mankind. (c) Duly highlight the supremacy of the nations which possess nuclear weapons. (d) Summarise the long biological effects of use of nuclear weapons. 3. The scientists engaged in manufacturing destructive weapons are (a) Very few in number (b) Irresponsible and incompetent (6 More than half of the total number (d) Engaged in the armaments industry against their desire 4. According to the passage, the argument on use and manufacture of nuclear weapons (a) Does not stand the test of legality (b) Possesses legal strength although it does not have moral standing (c) Is acceptable only on moral grounds (d) Becomes stronger if legal and moral considerations are combined 5. The author of the passage seems to be of the view that (a) Utilization of scientific skills in manufacture of weapons is appropriate. (b) Manufacture of weapons of death would help eradication of poverty. (c) Spending money on manufacture of weapons may be justifiable subject to the availability of funds. (d) Utilization of valuable knowledge for manufacture of lethal weapons is inhuman. 6. Which of the following is one of the consequences of nuclear war? (a) Fertility of land will last for a year or so. (b) Post-war survivors being very few will have abundant food. (c) Lights would be cooler and more comfortable. (d) Southern Hemisphere would remain quite safe in the post-war period. 7. Which of the following best explains the word devoted, as used in the passage? (a) Dedicated for a good cause (b) Utilised for betterment (c) Abused for destruction (d) Under-utilised 8. The biological consequences of nuclear war as given in the passage include all the following, except (a) Fall in temperature below zero degree Celsius. (b) Ultraviolet radiation (c) High does of ionizing (d) Abundant food for smaller population. 9. It appears from the passage that the use of nuclear weapons is considered against morality by (a) Only such of those nations who cannot afford to manufacture and sell weapons (b) Almost all the nations of the world (c) Only the superpowers who can afford to manufacture and sell weapons (d) Most of the scientists devote their valuable skills to manufacture nuclear weapons. 10. Which of the following statements I, II, III and IV is definitely true in the context of the passage? (I) There is every likelihood of survival of the human species as a consequence of nuclear war. (II) Nuclear war risks and harmful effects are highly exaggerated. (III) The post war survivors would be exposed to the benefits of non-lethal radiation. (IV) Living organisms in the areas which are not directly affected by nuclear was would also suffer. (a) I (b) III (c) II (d) IV Question number 1-10, along with their accompanying passage, were copied verbatim from B.S.R.B. Hindi Officers 2007 Exam, published as Exercise 5 in DR. R.N. SINGH, NEW PATTERN TEST OF OBJECTIVE ENGLISH (Upkar Prakashan, 2007) 9-11. This is also available on Google Books at this link: https://books.google.co.in/books? id=Stg86QY9WicC&printsec=frontcover&source=gbs_ge_su mmary_r&cad=0#v=onepage&q&f=false GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 111. Which is the oldest Code of Law in India? (a) Naradasmriti(b) Manusmriti (c) Vedasmriti(d) Prasarsmriti This question, along with the first three options, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 1 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 1. 112. Private international law is also called (a) Civil Law (b) Local laws (c) Conflict of laws (d) Common law This question, along with all four options, has been copied verbatim, with just the order of options changed, from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 7 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 1. 113. A nominal sum given as a. token for striking a sale is called (a) Earnest money (b) Advance (c) Interest (d) Solatium This question has been paraphrased, along with all four options copied verbatim in the same order, from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 18 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 2. 114. Joint heirs to a property are called (a) Co-heirs (b) Coparceners (c) Successors (d) Joint owners This question, along with all four options in the same order, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 25 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 2. 115. The right of a party to initiate an action and be heard before a Court of law is called (a) Right in rem (b) Right in personam (c) Fundamental right (d) Locus standi This question, along with all four options in the same order, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 30 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 2. 116. Indian Parliament is based on the principle of (a) Bicameralism (b) Universal Adult Franchise (c) Dyarchy (d) Federalism This question, along with the first three options in the same order, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 41 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 3. 117. The Supreme Court held that evidence can be recorded by video-conferencing in the case ... (a) State of Maharashtra v. Prafull B. Desai (b) Paramjit Kaur v. State of Punjab (c) Pappu Yadav v. State of Bihar (d) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab This question, along with the first and the third options, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 47 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 3. 118. When the master is held liable for the wrongful act of his servant, the liability is called (a) Strict liability (b) Vicarious liability (c) Tortous liability (d) Absolute liability This question, along with the first three options in the same order, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 54 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 4. 119. The act of unlawfully entering into another's property constitutes (a) Trespass (b) Restraint (c) Appropriation (d) Encroachment This question, along with three options, has been copied verbatim, with just the order of options changed, from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 58 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 4. 120. Which Parliamentary Committee in Indian system of democracy is chaired by a member of Opposition Party? (a) Estimates Committee (b) Joint Parliamentary Committee (c) Public Accounts Committee (d) Finance Committee This question, along with the first three options in the same order, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 75 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 5. 121. Supreme Court held that Preamble as a basic feature of Constitution cannot be amended in the case of (a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (c) S.R.Bommai v. Union of India (d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala This question, along with all four options in the same order, has been paraphrased from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 82 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 5. 122. In the year 2002 the Competition Act was enacted replacing (a) Trade Marks Act (b) Copy Right Act (c) Contract Act (d) MRTP Act This question, along with the second and fourth option in the same order, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 98 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 6. 124. The law relating to prisoners of war has been codified by (a) Geneva Convention (b) Vienna Convention (c) Paris Convention (d) None of the above This question, along with two options, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 994 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 60. 125. Public holidays are declared under (a) Criminal Procedure Code (b) Civil Procedure Code (c) Constitution of India (d) Negotiable Instruments Act This question has been copied verbatim, along with all four of its options paraphrased, from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 117 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 7. 126. When a person is prosecuted for committing a criminal offence, the burden of proof is on (a) Accused (b) Prosecution (c) Police (d) Complainant This question, along with all four options in slightly different order, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 127 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 8. 127. Offence which can be compromised between the parties is known as (a) Non-compoundable offence (b) Cognizable offence (c) Compoundable offence (d) Non-cognizable offence This question has been paraphrased, along with all four options copied verbatim in slightly different order, from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 139 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 8. 128. Husband and wife have a right to each others company. The right is called (a) Conjugal right (b) Human right (c) Civil right (d) Fundamental right This question has been copied verbatim, along with all four options paraphrased, from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 144 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 9. 129. A person 'dying intestate' means he (a) Died without legal heirs (b) Died without making a will (c) Died without any property (d) Died without a son This question has been paraphrased, along with three options copied verbatim, from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 148 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 9. 130. If a witness makes a statement in Court, knowing it to be false, he commits the offence of (a) Forgery (b) Falsehood (c) Perjury (d) Breach of trust This question has been paraphrased, along with two options copied verbatim in the same order, from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 164 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 10. 131. A child born after father's death is (a) Posthumous (b) Heir (c) Intestate (d) Bastard This question has been copied almost verbatim, along with three options copied verbatim, from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 166 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 10. 132. A formal instrument by which one person empowers another to represent him is known as (a) Affidavit (b) Power of attorney (c) Will (d) Declaration This question, along with two options, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 798 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 49. 133. The temporary release of a prisoner is called (a) Parole (b) Amnesty (c) Discharge (d) Pardon This question, along with three options, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 173 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 10. 134. The offence of inciting disaffection, hatred or contempt against Government is (a) Perjury (b) Forgery (c) Sedition (d) Revolt This question, along with three options, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 178 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 10. 135. India became the member of United Nations in the Year (a) 1956 (b) 1945 (c) 1946 (d) 1950 This question, along with all four options with just their order changed, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 188 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 11. 136. A party to the suit is called (a) Accused (b) Plaintiff (c) Litigant (d) Complainant This question, along with all four options with just their order changed, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 203 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 12. 137. Who heads the four member Committee appointed to study the Centre-State relations especially the changes took place since Sarkaria Commission (a) Justice M.M.Punchi (b) Justice Nanavati (c) Justice Barucha (d) Justice Kuldip Singh This question, along with the first three options in the same order, has been copied almost verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 219 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 12. 138. No one can be convicted twice for the same offence. This doctrine is called (a) Burden of proof (b) Double conviction (c) Double jeopardy (d) Corpus delicti This question, along with three options, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 273 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 15. 139. A participant in commission of crime is popularly known as (a) Respondent (c) Defendant (b) Under-trial (d) Accomplice This question, along with three options, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 274 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 15. 140. Which of the following is not payable to Central Government? (a) Land revenue (b) Customs duty (c) Income tax (d) Wealth tax ' This question has been paraphrased, along with three options being copied verbatim, from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 284 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 16. 141. Where is the National Judicial Academy located? (a) Kolkata, (b) Bhopal (c) Delhi (d) Mumbai This question, along with all four options with their order different, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 293 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 17. 142. Who have constitutional right to audience in all Indian Courts? (a) President (b) Chief Justice of India (c) Attorney General (d) Solicitor General This question, along with two options, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 294 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 17. 144. 'Court of Record' is a Court which? (a) Maintains records (b) Preserves all its records (c) Can punish for its contempt (d) Is competent to issue writs This question, along with all four options with their order different, has been paraphrased from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 312 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 18. 145. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office only on grounds of (a) Gross inefficiency (b) Delivering wrong judgments (c) Senility (d)Proven misbehaviour or incapacity This question, along with three options, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 326 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 19. 146. Fiduciary relationship means a relationship based on (a) Trust (b) Money (c) Contract(d) Blood relation This question, along with all four options with their order different, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 366 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 22. 147. The Chairman of Tehelka Enquiry Commission is (a) Justice Kripal (b) Justice S.N.Phukan (c) Justice Saharia (d) Justice Liberhan This question, along with all four options with their order different, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 402 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 25. 148. The concept of judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of (a) U.S.S.R. (b) U.K. (c) U.S.A. (d) Switzerland This question, along with all four options with their order different, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 433 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 27. 149. Every duty enforceable by law is called (a) Accountability (b) Obligation (c) Burden (d) Incidence This question, along with one of the options, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 510 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 31. 150. The killing of a new born child by its parents is (a) Malfeasance (b) Infanticide (c) Abortion (d) Foeticide This question, along with all four options with their order different, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 740 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 46. 151.Offence of breaking a divine idol is (a) Salus populi (b) Crime (c) Sacrilege (d) Blasphemy This question, along with all four options with their order different, has been copied almost verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 751 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 46. 152. A person who goes under-ground or evades the jurisdiction of the Court is known as (a) Offender (b) Under-ground (c) Absentee (d) Absconder This question, along with two options, have been paraphrased from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 783 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 48. 153.What is a caveat? (a) A warning (b) An injunction (c) Writ (d) Certiorari This question, along with all four options with their order different, has been copied verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 843 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 51. 154. Muslim religious foundations are known as (a) Din (b) Wakfs (c) Ulema (d) Quzat This question, along with three of its options, has been copied nearly verbatim from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 903 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 20082009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 55. 155. Beyond what distance from the coast, is the sea known as "High Sea"? (a) 20 miles (b) 300 miles (c) 200 kms. (d) 12 miles This question, along with two of its options, has been paraphrased from the Legal Aptitude section, Question number 947 in M.A. RASHID & NISA FASIL, THE ULTIMATE GUIDE TO LLB ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2008-2009 (LexisNexis, 2008) 57. CLAT 2013 LEGAL APTITUDE 196. Principle Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to a person or property. Facts Mr. Sharman, the Italian captain of a steam vessel, suddenly and without any fault or negligence on his part, finds himself near the Kochi coast in such a position that before he can stop his vessel, he must inevitably run down a boat B with twenty or thirty passengers on board, unless he changes the course of his vessel, and that by changing his course, he must incur risk of running down a boat C with only two passengers on board, which he may possibly clear. Whether Sharman has committed an offence? (a) Sharman has committed no offence because this was done out of necessity (b) Sharman can be held responsible for the act of criminal negligence (c) Sharman can be held responsible for culpable homicide (d) This is a clear case of accident so Sharman cannot be held responsible This question is an exact reproduction of Question Number 156 from CLAT 2012. CLAT 2015 In all, 37 out of 40 questions in the English section have been plagiarized (in most cases, verbatim) from previous years' CAT test papers and preparation books. 10 of these questions were from the CAT 1997 question paper, and 8 more have been taken Arun Sharma's book Study Package for CAT Online. This means that at most, only 3 out of the 40 questions in the English section are completely original. In the General Knowledge/Current Affair section, 45 out of the 50 questions were found to be plagiarized (in almost every case, again, the copying was verbatim) from various online sources. This means that at most, only 5 out of the 50 questions are completely original. Moreover, 27 of these 45 plagiarised questions were from the same website http://www.gktoday.in/, 28 of these posted within seven weeks encompassing February and March, and 20 of these questions from just seven of the periodic posts made on the website. In the Numerical Ability section, 18 out of 20 questions were found to be plagiarized (in almost every case, again, the copying was verbatim) from various online sources. This means that at most, only 2 out of the 20 questions are completely original. In the Logical Reasoning section, 36 out of 40 questions were found to be plagiarized (in almost every case, again, the copying was verbatim) from various online sources. This means that at most, only 4 out of the 40 questions are completely original. Also, there is a noticeable trend of almost all of these questions being plagiarized from CAT preparation books and material. ENGLISH Question Id : 1701 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Question Numbers : (1 to 3) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the question, there are five sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words 'phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one. Sub questions Question Number : 1 Question Id : 1702 The further [A]/ farther [B] he pushed himself, the more disillusioned he grew. For the crowd it was more of a historical [A]/historic [B] event; for their leader it was just another day. The old has a healthy distrust [A]/mistrust[B] for all new technology. The film is based on a worthy [A]/true [B] story. She coughed discreetly [A]/discretely [B] to announce her presence. Options : 1. x (A): BBAAB 2. ?(B): ABBBA 3. x (C): BABBA 4. x. (D): BBAAB The first three sentences are substantially plagiarized from Question Number 67 of the CAT 2007 test paper. Source: ARUN SHARMA AND MEENAKSHI UPADHYAY, CAT SOLVED PAPERS SINCE 1999 (Tata McGraw-Hills, 2011) 10.15 Besides, the fourth sentence has been copied verbatim from Page 221, Example (iv) for Confusable Words in SUJIT KUMAR, VERBAL ABILITY FOR THE CAT (Pearson Education India, 2011). Question Number : 2 Question Id : 1703 Regrettably [A] / Regretfully [B] I have to decline your invitation. The critics censored [A] / censured [B] the new movie because of its social unacceptability. He was besides [A] / beside [B] himself with range when I told him what I had done. Anita had a beautiful broach [A]/brooch [B] on the lapel of her jacket. He has the same capacity as an adult to consent [A] / assent [R] to surgical treatment. Options : 1. ?(A): BABBA 2. x (B): BBAAB 3. x (C): ABBBA 4. x (D): BBAAB The first and third sentence have been copied verbatim from Page 155, Question number 6, parts 1 and 3 in Practice Exercise 1, the fourth sentence has been copied verbatim from Page 188, Question number 1, part A in Practice Exercise 12, and the fifth sentence has been copied verbatim (except for the [B] instead of [R] next to 'assent', which seems to be a typographical error by CLAT) from Page 188, Question number 2, part C in Practice Exercise 12, of SUJIT KUMAR, ENGLISH USAGE FOR THE CAT (Pearson Education India, 2010). The second sentence has been copied verbatim from Page 221, Example (ii) for Confusable Words in SUJIT KUMAR, VERBAL ABILITY FOR THE CAT (Pearson Education India, 2011). Question Number : 3 Question Id : 1704 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The prisoner's interment [A] / internment [B] came to an end with his early release She managed to bite back the ironic [A]/caustic [B] retort on the tip of her tongue. Jeans that flair [A]/ flare [R] at the bottom are in fashion these days. They heard the bells peeling [A] / pealing [B] far and wide. The students baited [A]/bated [B] the instructor with irrelevant questions. Options : 1. x(A): BBABB 2. x(B): ABBBB 3. x(C): BABBA 4. ?(D): BBBBA All of the sentences in the question have been copied verbatim from Page 188, Practice Exercise 12 of SUJIT KUMAR, ENGLISH USAGE FOR THE CAT (Pearson Education India, 2010). The first sentence is copied from Question 4, part D, the second sentence from Question 3, part A, the third sentence from Question 1, part E, the fourth sentence from Question 3, part E, and the fifth sentence from question 4, part B of the same. Question Id : 1709 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (7 to 12) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Fill up the blanks, numbered [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] and [6] in the passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank. "Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns.' With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3], the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5], and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled." Sub questions Question Number : 7 Question Id : 1710 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Fill up the blank [1] Options : 1. x (A): devious 2. ?(B): blunt 3. x (C): tactful 4. x (D): pretentious Question Number : 8 Question Id : 1711 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Fill up the blank [2] Options : 1. ?(A): interest 2. x (B): taxes 3. x (C): principal 4. x (D): returns Question Number : 9 Question Id : 1712 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Fill up the blank [3] Options : 1. x (A): sanctions 2 x (B): refunds 3. x (C): fees 4. ?(D): fines Question Number : 10 Question Id : 1713 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Fill up the blank [4] Options : 1. x (A): closed 2. x (B): detached 3. ?(C): attached 4. x (D): impounded Question Number : 11 Question Id : 1714 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Fill up the blank [5] Options : 1. x (A): smashed 2. ?(B): seized 3. x (C): dismantled 4. x (D): frozen Question Number : 12 Question Id : 1715 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Fill up the blank [6] Options : 1. x (A): purchaser 2. x (B): victim 3. x (C): investor 4. ?(D): offender Questions 7-12 are copied near verbatim from Questions 7579 of CAT 2004 test paper,with only minor modification in the order of options. Source: ARUN SHARMA, STUDY PACKAGE FOR THE CAT ONLINE (Tata McGraw-Hill, 2011), III.129 Question Id : 1716 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (13 to 14) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Four alternative summaries are given the text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. Sub questions Question Number : 13 Question Id : 1717 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Some decisions will be fairly obvious-"no-brainers". Your bank account is low, but you have a two-week vacation corning up and you want to get away to some place warm to relax with your family. Will you accept your in-laws' offer of free use of their Florida beachfront condo? Sure. You like your employer and feel ready to move forward in your career. Will you step in for your boss for three weeks while she attends a professional development course? Of course. A. Some decisions are obvious under certain circumstances. You may, for example, readily accept a relative's offer of free holiday accommodation. Or step in for your boss when she is away. B. Some decisions are no-brainers. You need not think when making them. Examples are condo offers from in-laws and job offers from bosses when your bank account is low or boss is away. C. Easy decisions are called "no-brainers" because they do not require any cerebral activity. Examples such as accepting free holiday accommodation abound in our lives. D. Accepting an offer from in-laws when you are short on funds and want a holiday is a no-brainer. Another no-brainer is taking the boss's job when she is away. Options : 1. ?(A) A 2. x(B): B 3. x(C):C 4. x(D): D Question Number : 14 Question Id : 1718 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Physically, inertia is a feeling that you just can't move; mentally, it is a sluggish mind. Even if you try to be sensitive, if your mind is sluggish, you just don't feel anything intensely. You may even see a tragedy enacted in front of your eyes and not be able to respond meaningfully. You may see one person exploiting another, one group persecuting another, and not be able to get angry. Your energy is frozen. You are not deliberately refusing to act; you just don't have the capacity. A. Inertia makes your body and mind sluggish. They become insensitive to tragedies, exploitation, and persecution because it freezes your energy and decapacitates it. B. When you have inertia you don't act although you see one person exploiting another or one group persecuting another. You don't get angry because you are incapable. C. Inertia is of two types - physical and mental. Physical inertia restricts bodily movements. Mental inertia prevents response to events enacted in front of your eyes. D. Physical inertia stops your body from moving; mental inertia freezes your energy and stops your mind from responding meaningfully to events, even tragedies, in front of you. Options : 1. x(A): A 2. x(B): B 3. x(C):C 4. ?(D): D Both these questions are copied verbatim from Question Numbers 6 and 7 of the CAT 2003 test paper. Source: ARUN SHARMA AND MEENAKSHI UPADHYAY, HOW TO PREPARE FOR VERBAL ABILITY AND READING COMPREHENSION FOR THE CAT (Tata McGraw-Hill, 2011), 3.29, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=viSpe5E8VdoC&pg=SA1-PA8&dq=fairly+obvious+nobrainer&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CEcQ6AEwCGoVChMIi7LO7O3s xgIV59imCh2ZGAyt#v=onepage&q=fairly%20obvious %20no-brainer&f=false. Question Id : 1719 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (15 to 19) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : For the word a contextual sentence is given. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context. Sub questions Question Number : 15 Question Id : 1720 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 SPECIOUS: A specious argument is not simply a false one but one that has the ring of truth. Options : 1. x(A): Deceitful 2. x(B): Fallacious 3. ?(C): Credible 4. x(D): Deceptive Question Number : 16 Question Id : 1721 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 OBVIATE: The new mass transit system may obviate the need for the use of personal cars. Options : 1. x (A): Prevent 2. x (3): Forestall 3. x (C): Preclude 4. ?(D): Bolster Question Number : 17 Question Id : 1722 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 DISUSE: Some words fall into disuse as technology makes objects obsolete. Options : 1. , ?(A): Prevalent 2. x(B): Discarded 3. x (C): Obliterated 4. x(D): Unfashionable Question Number : 18 Question Id : 1723 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PARSIMONIOUS: The evidence was constructed from every parsimonious scraps of information. Options : 1. x(A): Prevalent 2. x(B): Penurious 3. x(C): Thrifty 4. ?(D): Altruistic Question Number : 19 Question Id : 1724 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 FACETIOUS: When I suggested that war is a method of controlling population, my father remarked that I was being facetious. Options : 1. ?(A): Jovian 2. x(B): Jovial 3. x(C): Jocular 4. x(D): Joking These questions have been copied verbatim from Page 155, Practice Exercise 2, Question Numbers 16-20 in NISHIT K. SINHA, THE PEARSON COMPLETE GUIDE FOR THE CAT (PEARSON EDUCATION INDIA, 2011), available at https://books.google.co.in/books?id=-hr-K31eBP0C&pg=RA1PA155&lpg=RA1PA155&dq=for+the+word+a+contextual+sentence+is+give n.pick+the+word+from+the+alternatives+given+that+is+ most+inappropriate&source=bl&ots=hYtcGFJGKU&sig=ci6K GSgDO0ghPsrr9By8rwx7O4U&hl=en#v=onepage&q=for %20the%20word%20a%20contextual%20sentence%20is %20given.pick%20the%20word%20from%20the %20alternatives%20given%20that%20is%20most %20inappropriate&f=false. The only difference is that for Question Number 18 in the CLAT test paper, option (A) was changed from its source question. Question Id : 1725 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (20 to 21) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Answer the question based on the following information. Indicate which of the statements given with that particular question consistent with the description of unreasonable man in the passage below. Unreasonableness is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unreasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill. He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend has finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted, but which cannot be politely refused. I f he is present at an arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two parties, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unreasonable man. Sub questions Question Number : 20 Question Id : 1726 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The unreasonable man tends to Options : 1. x(A): entertain women 2. x(B): be a successful arbitrator when dissenting parties are anxious to agree 3. x(C): be helpful when solicited 4. ?(D): tell a long story to people who have heard it many times before Question Number : 21 Question Id : 1727 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The unreasonable man tends to Options : 1. -d/?(A): bring a higher bidder to a salesman who has just closed a deal 2. x(B): disclose confidential information to others 3. x(C): sing the praise of the bride when he goes to a wedding 4. x(D): sleep late and rise early Both these questions have been copied nearly verbatim from Question numbers 11 and 12 in the CAT 1999 test paper. Source: ARUN SHARMA, STUDY PACKAGE FOR THE CAT ONLINE (Tata McGraw-Hill, 2011) III.126, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=IDoQpPktS7gC&pg=PA118&lpg=PA118&dq=unreasonabl eness+is+a+tendency+to+do+socially+permissible&source =bl&ots=uGQI4L4Eza&sig=y1xA7XmtFYv2UrCkydCJ4LFauU&hl=en&sa=X&ei=k1dxVdyYD8P8ugTz_5GYCg&ved=0C CIQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=unreasonableness%20is%20a %20tendency%20to%20do%20socially %20permissible&f=false. Question Id : 1728 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (22 to 24) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options. Sub questions Question Number : 22 Question Id : 1729 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The management can still hire freely but cannot scold freely. Options : 1. 2. 3. 4. ?(A): cannot scold at will x(B): cannot give umbrage x(C): cannot take decision to scold x(D): cannot scold willfully This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 4 in the CAT 1998 test paper. Source: http://mindworkzz.in/cat-1998-question-paper-withsolutions.aspx Question Number : 23 Question Id : 1730 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 This government has given subsidies to the Navratnas but there is no telling whether the subsequent one will do. Options : 1. ?(A): whether the subsequent government will do so 2. x(B): if the government to follow will accept the policy 3. x(C): if the government to follow will adhere to the policy 4. x(D): no telling whether the subsequent one will do so This question has been copied verbatim from Question III in SUJIT KUMAR, VERBAL ABILITY FOR THE CAT (Pearson Education India, 2011) 198, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=n2I8BAAAQBAJ&pg=PA198&lpg=PA198&dq=This+govern ment+has+given+subsidies+to+the+Navratnas+but+there +is+no+telling+whether+the+subsequent+one+will+do&s ource=bl&ots=8rtwvT7pU6&sig=MB_fYsAJ5UbzjXQzSwUbvrh 7Abw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CCoQ6AEwAmoVChMI1bGZmMbs xgIVheemCh075AC9#v=onepage&q=The%20management %20can%20still%20hire%20freely%20but%20cannot %20scold%20freely&f=false. Question Number : 24 Question Id : 1731 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The Romanians may be restive under Soviet direction but they are tied to Moscow by ideological and military links. Options : 1. ?(A): they are close to Moscow from ideological and military perspective 2. x(B): they are preparing for a greater revolution 3. x(C): secretly they rather enjoy the prestige of being protected by the mighty soviets 4. x(D): there is nothing they can do about it This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 30 in the CAT 1996 test paper, available at http://mba.hitbullseye.com/free_mock_cat/CAT1996.pdf. Question Id : 1732 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (25 to 27) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by a pair of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair. Sub questions Question Number : 25 Question Id : 1733 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Dulcet : Raucous Options : 1. x(A): Sweet : Song 2. ?(B): Crazy : Insane 3. x(C): Palliative : Exacerbating 4. x(D): Theory : Practical Question Number : 26 Question Id : 1734 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Malapropism : Words Options : 1. ?(A): Anachronism : Time 2. x(B): Ellipsis : Sentence 3. x(C): Jinjanthropism : Apes 4. x(D): Catechism : Religion These two questions have been copied verbatim from Question numbers 20 and 22, respectively, in the CAT 1996 test paper. Source: http://mba.hitbullseye.com/free_mock_cat/CAT1996.pdf Question Number : 27 Question Id : 1735 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Peel : Peal Options : 1. x(A): Coat : Rind 2. x(B): Laugh : Bell S. ?(C): Rain : Reign 4. x(D): Brain : Cranium This question has been copied verbatim from the Type A example in SUJIT KUMAR, VERBAL ABILITY FOR THE CAT (Pearson Education India, 2011) 273, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=n2I8BAAAQBAJ&pg=PA273&lpg=PA273&dq=peel:peal+a nalogies&source=bl&ots=8rtsvTblV5&sig=wdGTjmXBOyqVCTRXuVUb2BfQdk&hl=en&sa=X&ei=kGtxVb6Y L5KJuASMxYDoCg&ved=0CCwQ6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=dul cet&f=false. Question Id : 1736 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (28 to 37) Question Label Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In view of the passage given below. Choose the best option for question. When talks come to how India has done for itself in 50 years of Independence, the world has nothing but praise for our success in remaining a democracy. On other fronts, the applause is less loud. In absolute terms, India has not done too badly, of course, life expectancy has increased. So has literacy. Industry, which was barely a fledging, has grown tremendously. And as far as agriculture is concerned, India has been transformed from a country perpetually on the edge of starvation into a success story held up for others to emulate. But these are competitive times when change is rapid, and to walk slowly when the rest of the world is running is almost as bad as standing still on walking backwards. Compared with large chunks of what was then the developing world South Korea, Singapore, Malaysia, Thailand, Indonesia, China and what was till lately a separate Hong Kong-India has fared abysmally. It began with a far better infrastructure than most of these countries had. It suffered hardly or not at all during the Second World War. It had advantages like an English speaking elite, quality scientific manpower (including a Nobel laureate and others who could be ranked among the world's best) and excellent business acumen. Yet, today, when countries are ranked according to their global competitiveness, it is tiny Singapore that figures at the top. Hong Kong is an export powerhouse. So is Taiwan. If a symbol were needed of how far we have fallen back, note that while Korean Cielos are sold in India, no one is South Korea is rushing to buy an Indian car. The reasons list themselves. Topmost is economic isolationism. The government discouraged imports and encouraged selfsufficiency. Whatever the aim was, the result was the creation of a totally inefficient industry that failed to keep pace with global trends and, therefore, became absolutely uncompetitive. Only when the trade gates were opened a little did this become apparent. The years since then have been spent in merely trying to catch up. That the government actually sheltered its industrialists from foreign competition is a little strange. For in all other respects, it operated under the conviction that businessmen were little more than crooks how were to be prevented from entering the most important areas of the economy, how were to be hamstrung in as many ways as possible, how were to be tolerated in the same way as an inexcisable wart. The high expropriatory rates taxation, the licensing laws, the reservation of whole swathes of industry for the public sector, and the granting of monopolies to the public sector firms were the principle manifestations of this attitude. The government forgot that before wealth could be distributed, it had to be created. The government forgot that it itself could not create, but only squander wealth. Some of the manifestations of the old attitude have changed. Tax rates have fallen. Licensing has been all but abolished. And the gates of global trade have been opened wide. But most of these changes were first by circumstances partly by the foreign exchange bankruptcy of 1991 and the recognition that the government could no longer muster the funds of support the public sector, leave alone expand it. Whether the attitude of the government itself, or that of more than handful of ministers, has changed, is open to question. In many other ways, however, the government has not changed one with. Business still has to negotiate a welter of negotiations. Transparency is still a longer way off. And there is no exit policy. In defending the existing policy, politicians betray an inability to see beyond their noses. A no-exit policy for labour is equivalent to a noentry policy for new business. I f one industry is not allowed to retrench labour, other industries will think a hundred times before employing new labour. In other ways too, the government hurts industries. Public sector monopolies like the department of telecommunications and Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. make it possible for Indian business to operate only at a cost several times that of their counterparts abroad. The infrastructure is in a shambles partly because it is unable to formulate a sufficiently remunerative policy for private business, and partly because it does not have the stomach to change market rates for services. After a burst of activity in the early nineties, the government is dragging its feet. At the rate it is going, it will be another fifty years before the government realizes that a pro-business policy is the best pro-people policy. By then of course, the world would have moved even farther ahead. Sub questions Question Number : 28 Question Id : 1737 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The writer's attitude towards the Government is... Options : 1. ?(A): critical 2. x(B): ironical 3. x(C): sarcastic 4. x(D): derisive Question Number : 29 Question Id : 1738 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The writer is surprised at the Government's attitude towards its industrialists because....... Options : 1. x(A): the government did not need to protect its industrialists. 2. x(B): the issue of competition was non-existent. 3. ?(C): the government looked upon its industrialists as crooks. 4 x(D): the attitude was a conundrum. Question Number : 30 Question Id : 1739 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The Government was compelled to open the economy due to.... Options : 1. x(A): pressure from international market. 2. x(B): pressure from domestic market. 3. ?(C): foreign change bankruptcy and paucity of funds with the government. 4. x(D): All of the above. Question Number : 31 Question Id : 1740 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The writer ends the passage on a note of... Options : 1. x(A): cautious optimism 2. ?(B): pessimism 3. x (C): optimism 4. x(D): pragmatism Question Number : 32 Question Id : 1741 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 According to the writer India should have performed better than the other Asian nations because.... Options : 1. x(A): it had adequate infrastructure 2. ?(B): it had better infrastructure 3. x(C): it had better politicians who could take the required decisions. 4. x(D): All of the above. Question Number : 33 Question Id : 1742 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 India was in better condition than the other Asian nations because.... Options : 1. x(A): it did not face the ravages of the Second World War 2. x(B): it had an English speaking populace and good business sense. 3. x(C): it had enough wealth through its exports. 4. ?(D): Both (a) and (b) above Question Number : 34 Question Id : 1743 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The major reason for India's poor performance is........ Options : 1. ?(A): economic isolationism 2. x(B): economic mismanagement 3. x(C): inefficient industry 4. x(D):All of these Question Number : 35 Question Id : 1744 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 One of the factors of the government's projectionist policy was...... Options : 1. x(A): encouragement of imports 2. x(B): discouragement of imports 3. x(C): encouragement of exports 4. ?(D): discouragement of exports Question Number : 36 Question Id : 1745 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The example of the Korean Cielo has been presented to highlight...... Options : 1. x(A): India's lack of stature in the international market. 2. ?(B): India's poor performance in the international market. 3. x(C): India's lack of creditability in the international market 4. x(D): India's disrepute in the international market. Question Number : 37 Question Id : 1746 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 According to the writer..... Options : 1. ?(A): India's politicians are myopic in their vision of the country's requirements. 2. x(B): India's politicians are busy lining their pockets. S. x(C): India's politicians are not conversant with the needs of the present scenario. 4. x(D): All of the above. The passage and the questions have been copied verbatim from Passage - 2 and Question numbers 61-70 of the CAT 1997 test paper, available at http://mindworkzz.in/cat-1997question-paper-with-solutions.aspx. The only alteration is that the order of options in Question 35 has been changed from its source question, Question 68, in the CAT paper. Question Id : 1747 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (38 to 40) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Choose the option closest in meaning to the Capitalized word. Sub questions Question Number : 38 Question Id : 1748 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 GRANDIOSE Options : 1. ?(A): imposing 2. x(B): unpretentious 3. x(C): boring 4. x(D): lanky Question Number : 39 Question Id : 1749 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 SPRY Options : 1. x(A): doubtful 2. ?(B): nimble 3. x(C): prognosticate 4. x(D): leave Question Number : 40 Question Id : 1750 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 FUDGE Options : 1. x(A): to sweeten 2 x(B): smear 3. x(C): irritate 4. ?(D): falsify All three questions have been copied from ARUN SHARMA AND MEENAKSHI UPADHYAY, HOW TO PREPARE FOR VERBAL ABILITY AND READING COMPREHENSION FOR THE CAT (Tata McGraw-Hill, 2011). Question numbers 38 and 39 have been taken verbatim from Questions 1 and 12 respectively in Exercise 2 on pages 2.98-2.99, and Question 40 has been almost fully copied from Question 1 in Test 7 on page 4.29, leaving out just the fifth option in the latter. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Question Number : 41 Question Id : 1751 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Attukal Pongal festival, which is figured in Guinness Book of World Records is celebrated in .......... Options : 1. x(A): Tamil Nadu 2. ?(B): Kerala 3. x(C): Telangana. 4. x(D): Goa Question Number : 42 Question Id : 1752 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 In February 2015, which Indian Cricket legend has been inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame? Options : 1. x(A): Rahul Dravid 2. ?(B): Anil Kumble 3. x(C): Sachin Tendulkar 4. x(D): Mohammad Azharuddin Both these questions have been copied verbatim from Question numbers 1 and 2 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: February 22, 23, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-22-232015/. Question Number : 43 Question Id : 1753 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following Acts formally introduced the principle of elections for the first time? Options : 1. (A): The Indian Councils Act, 1909 2. (B): Government of India Act, 1919 S. (C): The Government of India Act, 1935 4. (D): India's Independence Act, 1947 This question has been copied verbatim from UNIVERSAL'S GUIDE TO ALL INDIA BAR EXAM (Universal Publishing House, 2011) 255. Question Number : 44 Question Id : 1754 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 IRCTC has recently launched a new service called 'RuPay prepaidcards' which will enable passengers to book their tickets, do shopping and pay service bills online. This service was launched in collaboration with which bank? Options : 1. ?(A): Union Bank of India 2. x(B): State Bank of India 3. x(C): ICICI Bank 4. x(D): Bharatiya Manila Bank This question has been copied verbatim from Question 7 on the website http://www.currentaffairs4examz.com/2015/03/currentaffairs-quiz-30-march-2015.html Question Number : 45 Question Id : 1755 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Garuda Shakti III is the military exercise between India and which country? Options : 1. x(A): Nepal 2. x(B): Russia 3. ?(C): Indonesia 4. x(D): China This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 1 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: February 24, 25, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-24-252015/. Question Number : 47 Question Id : 1757 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Name India's Beyond Visual Range (BVR) Air-to-Air missile which was successfully test fired on 19 March 2015 from a Sukhoi-30 fighter aircraft? Options : 1. ?(A): Astra 2. x(B): K-100 3. x(C): Mitra 4. x(D): Tejas This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 8 on the online post at https://www.facebook.com/studyiq/posts/1067239676638950 . Question Number : 48 Question Id : 1758 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The I SRO has developed a 'Flood Hazard Atlas" by mapping flood prone and vulnerable areas in which state? Options : 1. x(A): Kerala 2. x(3): Maharashtra 3. ?(C): Assam 4. x(D): Tripura This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 4 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: March 31, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-31-2015/. Question Number : 49 Question Id : 1759 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which South East Asian country has recently banned surrogacy service to end its flourishing rent-a-womb industry? Options : 1. x(A): Singapore 2. x(B): Laos 3. ?(C): Thailand 4. x(D): Vietnam This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 3 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: February 22. 23, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-22-232015/. Question Number : 51 Question Id : 1761 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The name of new Andhra Pradesh Capital is likely to be .......... Options : 1. ?(A): Amaravathi 2. x(B): Badrachala 3. x(C): Krishna Nagar 4. x(D): Varshavathi This question has been copied with slight variation in its framing but the same order of options from Question number 8 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: March 31, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-31-2015/. Question Number : 52 Question Id : 1762 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The Ufa city, where annual BRIGS summit-2015 is scheduled to be held is in which country? Options : 1. x(A): China 2. ?(B): Russia 3. x(C): South Africa 4. x(D): Brazil Question Number : 53 Question Id : 1763 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The "Ease of Doing Business Index' is prepared and published by ........... Options : 1. x(A): World Trade Organisation 2. ?(B): World Bank Group 3. x(C): United Nations 4. x(D): European Union These two questions have been copied verbatim from Question numbers 8 and 10 respectively in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: February 24, 25, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-24-252015/. Question Number : 54 Question Id : 1764 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Prime Minister Modi has launched the 'Give It Up" campaign for voluntarily giving up .......... Options : 1. (A): Use of tobacco products 2. ?(B): LPG subsidy 3. x(C): Use of incandescent bulbs 4. x(D): Use of plastics This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 6 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: March 27, 28 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-27-28-2015/. Question Number : 55 Question Id : 1765 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which one of the following Railway Zones and the corresponding Headquarter pairs is not correctly matched? Options : 1. x(A): North Eastern Railway: Gorakhpur 2. ?(B): South Eastern Railway: Bhubaneswar 3. x(C): Eastern Railway: Kolkata 4. x(D): South East Central Railway : Bilaspur This question has been copied with slight reframing of the question statement but exact order of options from Question number 38 on the website http://iasstudycenter.blogspot.in/2012/12/geography-test1.html. Question Number : 56 Question Id : 1766 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which among the following is the world's largest ecommerce company? Options : 1. ?(A): Amazon 2. x(B): eBay 3. x(C): Alibaba 4. x(D): Flipkart This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 1 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: March 29, 30, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-29-30-2015/. Question Number : 57 Question Id : 1767 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which committee was constituted by RBI to review governance of boards of banks in India? Options : 1. ?(A): P J Nayak Committee 2. x(B): H R Khan Committee 3. x(C): Harsh Vardhan Committee 4. x(D): K Subramanian Committee Question Number : 58 Question Id : 1768 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The recently announced Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana aims to boost ____? Options : 1. ?(A): Organic Farming 2. x(B): Drip Irrigation 3. x(C): Horticulture crops 4. x(D): Vegetable production These questions have been copied verbatim from Question numbers 1 and 5 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: February 26, 27, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-26-272015/. Question Number : 59 Question Id : 1769 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The winner of 2015 Malaysian Grand Prix is ____? Options : 1. ?(A): Sebastian Vettel 2. x(B): Kimi Raikkonen 3. x(C): Lewis Hamilton 4. x(D): Jenson Button This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 7 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: March 29, 30, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-29-30-2015/. Question Number : 61 Question Id : 1771 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Who among the following was the author of Rajtarangini, commonly regarded as the first genuine history of India written by an Indian? Options : 1. x(A): Banbhatta 2. x(B): Ravikirti 3. x(C): Pushpananda 4. ?(D): Kalhana This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 27 on the website http://www.questionpapers.net.in/general_knowledge/questio ns_and_answers/books_and_authors/books_and_authors_cod e_GKBA2.html. Question Number : 62 Question Id : 1772 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Name the golfer who won the Indian Open title on 22 February 2015. Options : 1. x(A): SSP Chowrasia 2. ?(B): Anirban Lahiri 3. x(C): Siddikur Rahman 4. x(D): Daniel Chopra This question has been copied almost verbatim, with just the last two options changed, from Question number 9 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: March 1, 2, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-1-2-2015/. Question Number : 63 Question Id : 1773 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which space agency has successfully launched the world's first all electric satellites in March, 2015? Options : 1. x(A): Russia Federal Space Agency 2. x(B): China National Space Administration 3. ?(C): SpaceX 4. x(D): European Space Agency This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 6 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: February 26, 27, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-26-272015/. Question Number : 64 Question Id : 1774 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Who among the following 18th century Indian rulers has been called 'Plato of his tribe'? Options : 1. x(A): Sawai Jai Singh 2. x(B): Badam Singh 3. ?(C): Suraj Mal 4. x(D): Guru Gobind Singh This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 2 on the website http://hareeshacademy.com/quiz/? id=147. Question Number : 65 Question Id : 1775 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Bhalchandra Nemade who has been selected for the 50th Jnanpith Award for 2014, on 6 February 2015, is a famous writer in which language? Options : 1. ?(A): Marathi 2. x(B): Oriya. 3. x(C): Malayalam 4. x(D): Urdu This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 1 on the website http://www.currentaffairs4examz.com/2015/02/currentaffairs-quiz-8-february-2015.html. Question Number : 66 Question Id : 1776 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A Snickometer is associated with which sports? Options : 1. x(A): Tennis 2. ?(B): Cricket 3. x(C): Hockey 4. x(D): Football This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 6 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: March 27, 28 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-27-28-2015/. Question Number : 67 Question Id : 1777 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following is incorrect option? Options : 1. x(A): Within the Arctic and Antarctic Circles there is at least one day in the year during which the sun does not set and at least one day on which it never rises. 2. x(B): At the North Pole there is darkness for half the year. 3. ?(C): At the summer solstice, the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn. 4. x(D): The sun shines vertically over the Equator twice in the year. This question has been copied verbatim from Question 102 in E. S. RAMASAMY, MBA ENTRANCE EXAMINATION (Sura Books, 2006) 168, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=2npAxqasEBAC&pg=RA1-PA168&lpg=RA1PA168&dq=Within+the+Arctic+and+Antarctic+Circles+ther e+is+at+least+one+day+in+the+year+during+which+the +sun+does+not+set+and+at+least+one+day+on+which+i t+never+rises+At+the+summer+solstice, +the+sun+shines+vertically+over+the+Tropic+of+Capricor n&source=bl&ots=A291qe6aP0&sig=fcRhn0xbR4IiO9HCjwth 6hzfgPw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CDAQ6AEwBmoVChMI_frkj6nt xgIVDI-UCh15Fg_e#v=onepage&q=Within%20the%20Arctic %20and%20Antarctic%20Circles%20there%20is%20at %20least%20one%20day%20in%20the%20year%20during %20which%20the%20sun%20does%20not%20set%20and %20at%20least%20one%20day%20on%20which%20it %20never%20rises%20At%20the%20summer%20solstice %2C%20the%20sun%20shines%20vertically%20over%20the %20Tropic%20of%20Capricorn&f=false. Question Number : 69 Question Id : 1779 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Recently, which country became the first member country to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to submit its action plan on Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC)? Options : 1. (A): India 2. ?(B): Switzerland 3. (C): Australia 4. (D): Singapore This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 10 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: February 26, 27, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-26-272015/. Question Number : 70 Question Id : 1780 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Lysosomes, which are known as suicide bags, are produced by which organelle? Options : 1. x(A): Mitochondria 2. ?(B): Golgi body 3. x(C): Ribosome 4. x(D): Peroxisome This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 3 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: February 28, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-28-2015/. Question Number : 72 Question Id : 1782 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which city has become India's first fully WiFi-enabled metro city on 5 February 2015? Options : 1. x(A): Mumbai 2. ?(B): Kolkata S. x(C): Chennai 4. x(D): Delhi This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 6 available on the website http://www.currentaffairs4examz.com/2015/02/current- affairs-quiz-8-february-2015.html. Question Number : 73 Question Id : 1783 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Who among the following is India's first chief of Cyber Security? Options : 1. x(A): B. J. Srinath 2. ?(B): Gulshan Rai S. x(C): A. S. Kamble 4. x(D): Amardeep S. Chawla Question Number : 74 Question Id : 1784 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which one of the following is the online grievances monitoring portals launched by union government for Indians living abroad? Options : 1. ?(A): Madad 2. x(B): Sankalp 3. x(C): Mythri 4. x(D): Rakshan These two questions have been copied verbatim from Question numbers 4 and 8 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: February 28, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-28-2015/. Question Number : 75 Question Id : 1785 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following is a Direct Tax? Options : 1. x(A): Excise duty 2. x(B): Sales tax 3. ?(C): Income tax 4. x(D): None of the above This question has been copied almost verbatim from Question numbers 4, with the same question statement, the same first two options in the same order and two options from the source replaced by one new option, in General Knowledge Today, Quiz 239 : Economic Awareness For Bank Examinations, available at http://www.gktoday.in/quiz-239-economic-awareness-forbank-examinations/. Question Number : 76 Question Id : 1786 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Indian Space Research Organisation was recently conferred 'Space Pioneer Award' by the National Space Society VS 5) of which country over the historic feat on successfully sending an orbit to Martian atmosphere in its very first attempt? Options : 1. x(A): France 2. x(B): European Union 3. x(C): China 4. ?(D): USA This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 3 on the website http://www.currentaffairs4examz.com/2015/01/currentaffairs-quiz-15-january-2015.html. Question Number : 77 Question Id : 1787 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Recently in which country did Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurate the first of the eight Coastal Surveillance Radar Systems (CSRS) being set up by India? Options : 1. x(A): Mauritius 2. x(B): Maldives 3. x(C): Sri Lanka 4. ?(D): Seychelles This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 20 on the website http://mib14.blogspot.in/2015/03/affairs-10-1-name-chiefof.html. Question Number : 78 Question Id : 1788 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Greece and Turkey are working resolve their dispute over sovereignty and related rights in the area of which sea? Options : 1. x(A): Black Sea 2. x(B): Sea of Marma 3. ?(C): Aegean Sea 4. x(D): Mediterranean Sea This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 2 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: March 3, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-3-2015/. Question Number : 79 Question Id : 1789 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Name the Indian industrialist on whose 175th birth anniversary, Union government launched the commemorative stamp on 6 January 2015? Options : 1. x(A): D Birla 2. x(B): T V Sundaram Iyengar 3. x(C): Kasturbhai Lalbhai 4. ?(D): Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 29 of the website http://freejobupdate.com/wpcontent/uploads/2015/02/Current-Affairs-pd-January2015.pdf. Question Number : 80 Question Id : 1790 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Options : 1. x(A): Kunal Bahl & Rohit Bansal- Snapdeal 2. ?(B): Sachin Bansal & Binny Bansal- Red Bus 3. x(C): Deepinder goyal & Pankaj Chaddah - Zomato 4. x(D): Bhavish Aggarwal & Ankit Bhati - Ola Cab This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 1 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: February 16, 17, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-16-172015/. Question Number : 81 Question Id : 1791 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which state is to host the 36th National Games in 2016? Options : 1. x(A): Karnataka 2. ?(B): Goa 3. x(C): Tamil Nadu 4. x(D): Telangana This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 9 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: February 18, 19, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-18-192015/. Question Number : 82 Question Id : 1792 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Project Varsha, India's new naval base under construction is near which of the following cities? Options : 1. x(A): Kochi 2. x(B): Karwar 3. ?(C): Visakhapatnam 4. x(D): Chennai This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 9 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: March 27, 28 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-27-28-2015/. Question Number : 83 Question Id : 1793 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Young Indian shuttler K. Srikanth on 15 March 2015 won which of the following major badminton championship? Options : 1. x(A): China Grand Prix Gold 2. x(B): Australian Grand Prix Gold 3. ?(C): Swiss Grand Prix Gold 4. x(D): Indonesian Grand Prix Gold This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 3 on the website http://www.currentaffairs4examz.com/2015/03/currentaffairs-quiz-19-march-2015.html. Question Number : 84 Question Id : 1794 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is the name given to the dedicated TV channel for farmers that was announced in the Union Budget for 201415 and Rs. 100 crore was set aside for its establishment? Options : 1. ?(A): Kisan 2. x(B): Farmers Show 3. x(C): Krishi Channel 4. x(D): None of the above The question has been almost verbatim copied from Question number 4 on http://currentaffairs.nirdeshak.com/20-top-questions-fromunion-budget-2014-15-presented-by-arun-jaitley/, with the source question not having any options. Question Number : 85 Question Id : 1795 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The "Friends for Life" - an elephant conservation project has been launched by World Wide Fund for Nature India and ........... Options : 1. x(A): Aditya Birla Group 2. ?(B): Muthoot Group 3. x(C): Manapuram Group 4. x(D): Reliance Ltd This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 1 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: February 20, 21, 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-20-212015/. Question Number : 86 Question Id : 1796 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The National Industrial Corridor (NI) that was proposed to be established in the Union Budget of 2014-15, will have its headquarters at which city? Options : 1. ?(A): Pune 2. x(B): Bhubaneswar 3. x(C): Bangalore 4. x(D): Hyderabad The question has been almost verbatim copied from Question number 20 on http://currentaffairs.nirdeshak.com/20-top-questions-fromunion-budget-2014-15-presented-by-arun-jaitley/, with the source question not having any options. Question Number : 87 Question Id : 1797 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 President Pranab Mukherjee on 6 January 2015 signed the ordinance to amend Citizenship Act, 1955. Which of the statements in this regard is/are right? I. The ordinance exempts Person of Indian Origin (PIO) from appearing before the local police station on every visit II. It replaced the clause that says foreigners marrying Indians must continuously stay in the country for a period of six months before they get an Indian citizenship Options : 1. ?(A): I Only 2. x(B): II Only S. x(C): Both I and II 4. x(D): Neither I nor II This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 4 of the website http://freejobupdate.com/wpcontent/uploads/2015/02/Current-Affairs-pd-January2015.pdf. Question Number : 88 Question Id : 1798 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Name the renowned Indian ecologist who has been chosen for the prestigious 2015 Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement on 23 March 2015? Options : 1. x(A): MS Swaminathan 2. x(B): Kasthuri Rangan 3. x(C): Jayaram Ramesh 4. ?(D): Madhav Gadgil This question has been copied verbatim from the Question number 4 on the website http://www.currentaffairs4examz.com/2015/03/currentaffairs-quiz-30-march-2015.html. Question Number : 89 Question Id : 1799 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 How much Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in country's defence sector was proposed in the Union Budget 2014-15 presented on 10 July 2014? Options : 1. x(A): 51% 2. ?(B): 49% 3. x(C): 29% 4. x(D): 10% The question has been almost verbatim copied from Question number 8 on the website http://currentaffairs.nirdeshak.com/20-top-questions-fromunion-budget-2014-15-presented-by-arun-jaitley/ with the source question not having any options. Question Number : 90 Question Id : 1800 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The protein CA-125 (Cancer Antigen-125) is used as biomarker for detection of which type of cancer? Options : 1. ?(A): Ovarian cancer 2. x(B): Bone cancer 3. x(C): Lung cancer 4. x(D): Oral cancer This question has been copied verbatim from Question number 6 in General Knowledge Today, GK & Current Affairs: March 25, 26 2015, available at http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-25-26-2015/. NUMERICAL ABILITY Question Id : 1801 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (91 to 95) Question Label Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION: Answer the questions based on the information given in the following table. A, B, C, D, E denote companies and 2006, 2007, 2008, 2009 & 2010 denote years. Number of Units Manufactured (M) and Number of Units Sold (S) (in hundreds) by five different companies over the years. A B C D E M S M S M S M S M S 2006 2.8 1.3 3.3 2.2 2.6 1.7 3.0 2.2 1.9 1.4 2007 3.2 2.0 2.4 1.6 2.2 1.5 2.5 1.9 2.0 1.7 2008 1.9 0.9 2.9 1.6 2.1 1.0 2.3 1.5 1.6 1.1 2009 1.0 0.4 2.4 1.3 2.8 1.4 2.1 1.2 3.2 2.5 2010 2.5 1.5 2.3 1.2 2.6 2.1 1.8 1.1 3.1 2.6 Sub questions Question Number : 91 Question Id : 1802 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is the total number of units manufactured by Company C over all the years together? Options : 1. x(A): 1420 2. x(B): 1030 3. ?(C): 1230 4. x(D): 1320 Question Number : 92 Question Id : 1803 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is the approximate percent increase in the number of units sold by Company E in the year 2007 from the previous year? Options : 1. x(A): 17 2. x(B): 36 S. x(C): 27 4. ?(D): 21 Question Number : 93 Question Id : 1804 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The number of units sold by Company D in the year 2006 is what percent of the number of units manufactured by it in that year? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) Options : 1. x(A): 52.63 2. x(B): 61.57 3. x(C): 85.15 4. ?(D): 73.33 Question Number : 94 Question Id : 1805 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is the respective ratio of total number of units manufactured by Company A and B together in the year 2009 to those sold by them in the same year? Options : 1. ?(A): 2: 01 2. x(B): 3:02 3. x(C): 5:02 4. x(D): None of the Above Question Number : 95 Question Id : 1806 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is the average number of units sold by Company D over all the years together? Options : 1. x(A): 166. 2 ?(B): 158 3 x(C): 136 4. x(D): 147s These questions have been copied verbatim from Question numbers 86-90 of the SBI Probationary Officers Model Paper available at http://www.eenadupratibha.net/Pratibha/onlineDesk/sbi_po_1 4/SBI%20PO%20Model%20Paper3.pdf. Question Number : 97 Question Id : 1808 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The simplified value of [(0.111)3 + (0.222) 3- {0.333) 3+ (0333)2 x (0.222)]3 is: Options : 1. x(A.): 0.999 2. x(B): 0.111 3. ?(C): 0 4. x(D): 0.888 This question, along with all four options with their order changed, has been copied verbatim from Solved Paper-2, Question Number 161 in SANJEEV JOON, COMPLETE GUIDE FOR SSC (STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION) COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAMINATION, TIER-I & II (Tata McGrawHill, 2010) 1.39, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=HSwAwcIEuwkC&pg=SA1-PA39&lpg=SA1PA39&dq=The+simplified+value+of+ [{0.111)3&source=bl&ots=JjXhktV7v&sig=HhcgC1DbzpI2WxYz8i_bSSnheqo&hl=en&sa=X &ei=atRyVZ2kAc6eugSb24JQ&ved=0CCoQ6AEwBQ#v=onep age&q=The%20simplified%20value%20of%20%5B %7B0.111)3&f=false. Question Number : 99 Question Id : 1810 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 If x = (163+ 173+ 183+ 193), then x divided by 70 leaves a remainder of,-- 1. ?(A): 0 2 x(B): 1 3. x(C): 69 4. x(D): 35 The question, along with all four options, has been copied verbatim from the website http://www.tcyonline.com/discuss/que/28911/if-x163173183193-then-x-divided70-leaves-remainder-of. Question Number : 100 Question Id : 1811 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A man has 9 friends: 4 boys and 5 girls. In how many ways can he invite them, if there have to be exactly 3 girls in the invitees? Options : 1. x(A): 320 2. ?(B): 160 3. x(C): 80 4. x(D): 200 The question, along with all four options in the same order, has been copied verbatim from the website http://gpl4you.com/ask_questions-743-A-man-has-ninefriends-four-boys-and-five-girls-In-how-many-ways-can-heinvite-them-if-there-have. Question Number : 101 Question Id : 1812 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A group of 630 children is arranged in rows for a group photograph session. Each row contains three fewer children than the row in front of it. What number of rows is not possible? Options : 1. x(A): 3 2. x(B): 4 S. x(C): 5 4. ?(D): 6 The question, along with all four options in the same order, has been copied verbatim from Question number 15 in Level2 questions on the website http://www.lofoya.com/AptitudeQuestions-And-Answers/Algebra/l2p3.htm. Question Number : 103 Question Id : 1814 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Two trains, one from Howrah to Patna and other from Patna to Howrah, start simultaneously. After they meet, the trains reach their destinations after 9 hours and 16 hours respectively. The ratio of their speed is... Options : 1. x(A): 2:03 2. ?(B): 4:03 3. x(C): 6:07 4. x(D): 9:06 The question, along with the first three options in the same order, has been copied verbatim from the website http://www.indiabix.com/aptitude/problems-ontrains/discussion-813. Question Number : 104 Question Id : 1815 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes slow at noon on Monday and is 4 minute 48 second fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct? Options: 1. x(A): 2 p.m. on Tuesday 2. ?(B): 2 p.m. on Wednesday 3. x(C): 3 p.m. on Thursday 4. x(D): 1 p.m. on Friday The question, along with all four options in the same order, has been copied verbatim from the website http://www.indiabix.com/aptitude/clock/discussion-657. Question Number : 105 Question Id : 1816 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A speaks truth in 75% cases and B in 80% of the cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other, narrating the same incident? Options : 1. (A): 5% 2. (B): 15% 3. ?(C): 35% 4. (D): 45% The question, along with all four options in the same order, has been copied verbatim from the website https://answers.yahoo.com/question/index? qid=20110419202013AAvrFfi. Question Number : 106 Question Id : 1817 Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The sum of all the natural numbers from 200 to 600 (both inclusive) which are neither divisible by 8 nor by 12 is: Options : 1. (A): 1,23,968 2. (B): 1,33,068 3. ?(C): 1,33,268 4. (D): 1,87,332 The question, without the options, has been copied verbatim from the website http://www.minglebox.com/mba/answer/the-sum-of-all-thenatural-numbers-from-200-to-600-both-inclusive-which-areneither-divisible-by-8-nor. Question Number : 107 Question Id : 1818 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 In a tournament, there are n teams T1, T2,.......Tn, with n > 5. Each team consists of k players, k > 3. The following pairs of teams have one player in common T1 and T2, T2 and T3, ....., Tn-1.and Tn, and Tn and T1. No other pair of teams has any player in common. How many players are participating in the tournament, considering all the n teams together? Options : 1. x(A): k(n - 1) 2. x(B): n(k- 2) 3 x(C): k(n - 2) 4. ?(D): n(k - 1) This question, along with all four options, has been copied verbatim from Question Number 8 in the CAT 2007 test paper, with the source question having one additional option. Source: NISHIT K. SINHA, THE PEARSON GUIDE TO QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE FOR THE CAT (Pearson Education India, 2009) 466. Question Number : 108 Question Id : 1819 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 If n2 = 12345678987654321, what is n? Options : 1 x(A): 12344321 2. x(B): 1235789 3. ?(C): 111111111 4 x(D): 11111111 This question, along with all four options, has been copied verbatim, with the source question having an additional option, from Question Number 14 in the Section Test 1 on Number System, in NISHIT K. SINHA, THE PEARSON COMPLETE GUIDE FOR THE CAT (Pearson Education India, 2011) 1.22, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=-hrK31eBP0C&pg=PA222&lpg=PA222&dq=If+n^2+=+123456 78987654321,+what+is+n? &source=bl&ots=hYtcHFFKJT&sig=lzAXeZnRfsFEm1GPMaZJS yl3RfA&hl=en&sa=X&ei=-JyVe2tGZPauQTmy4GQAg&ved=0CDgQ6AEwBA#v=onepage &q&f=false. Question Number : 109 Question Id : 1820 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Along a road lie an odd number of stones placed at intervals of 10m. These stones have to be assembled around the middle stone. A person can carry only one stone at a time. A man carried out the job starting with the stone in the middle, carrying stories in succession, thereby covering a distance of 4.8 km. Then, the number of stones is: Options : 1. x(A): 35 2 x(B): 15 3. ?(C): 31 4. x(D): 29 This question, along with all four options, has been copied verbatim from Review Test 1, Question Number 19 in ARUN SHARMA, HOW TO PREPARE FOR QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE FOR THE CAT (Tata McGraw-Hill, 2011) 87, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=3mSdaMAhVbwC&printsec=frontcover&source=gbs_atb# v=onepage&q&f=false. Question Number : 110 Question Id : 1821 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What are the last two digits of 72008? Options : 1. ?(A): 01 2 x(B): 21 3. x(C): 61 4. x(D): 71 The question, along with three options, has been copied verbatim from the website http://rewavepro.com/questionbank/quant/what-are-the-last-two-digits-of-7-2008. LOGICAL REASONING Question Id : 1876 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (161 to 168) Question Label Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : W, X, Y, and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. 500, and a record player. Z originally had a cycle and a walkman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y. Z get a camera costing Rs. 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z's cycle. Z gave his walkman to W. Sub questions Question Number : 161 Question Id : 1877 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Total cost of materials Z had at the beginning was : Options : 1. x(A): Rs. 1500 2. ?(B): Rs. 1700 3. x(C): Rs. 1000 4. x(D): Rs. 2000 Question Number : 162 Question Id : 1878 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 At the beginning who had the costliest items : Options : 1. ?(A): W 2. x(B): X 3. x(C): Y 4. x(D): Z Question Number : 163 Question Id : 1879 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Who did not have a cricket bat after the exchange of items was over? Options : 1. x(A): W 2. ?(B): X 3. x(C): Y 4. x(D): Z Question Number : 164 Question Id : 1880 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Who became the gainer by highest amount through exchange? Options : 1. x(A): W 2. x(B): X 3. x(C): Y 4. ?(D): Z Question Number : 165 Question Id : 1881 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The person incurring the highest amount of financial loss through exchange lost an amount of: Options : 1. x(A): Rs. 600 2. x(B): Rs. 1000 3. ?(C): None 4. x(D): Rs. 500 Question Number : 166 Question Id : 1882 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The amount of price of all the things remaining with the four persons lie between: Options : 1. x(A): Rs. 800-Rs. 900 2. x(B): Rs. 10000-12000 3. x(C): Rs. 9000-Rs. 10000 4. ?(D): Rs. 10000-Rs. 11000 Question Number : 167 Question Id : 1883 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Even after exchanges, an item of highest value remained in possession of: Options : 1. ?(A): W 2. x(B): X 3. x(C): Y 4. x(D): Z Question Number : 168 Question Id : 1884 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Among the things exchanged, which one faced the highest exchange value in percentage term. Options : 1. x(A): Cricket Eat 2. x(B): Record Player 3. x(C): Camera 4. ?(D): Cycle The above questions have been copied verbatim, with only slight change in the order of questions, from Questions numbers 121 to 128 in the CLAT Focus Mock Test-1 on the website http://www.academia.edu/4701050/CLAT_FOCUS_MOCK_TEST _-1_INSTRUCTION_TO_THE_CANDIDATES. Question Id : 1885 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (169 to 173) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Read the following information and choose the best option. Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially, the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his /her "sources'. I f the person has two sources, then he /she compares the answer-keys obtained for both sources. I f the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he /she copies the source's answer into his /her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his /her answer key. The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. This data represents question numbers. Na Wrong Blank me Answer(s) Answer(s ) A 46 --B 96 46,90,25 C 27,56 17,46,90 D 17 ---E 46,90 ---F 14,46 92,90 G 25 --H 46,92 --- I 27 17,26,90 Sub questions Question Number : 169 Question Id : 1886 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which one of the following must have two sources? Options : 1. x(A): A 2. ?(B): B 3. x(C): C 4. x(D): D Question Number : 170 Question Id : 1887 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer keys before C could make his answer key? Options : 1. x(A): 2 2. x(B): 3 3. ?(C): 4 4. x(D): 5 Question Number : 171 Question Id : 1888 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Both G and H were sources to .... Options : 1. x(A): F 2. x(B): B 3. x(C): A 4. ?(D): None of the above Question Number : 172 Question Id : 1889 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following statement is true? Options : 1. x(A): introduced the wrong answer to question 27 2. x(B): E introduced the wrong answer to question 46 3. ?(C): F introduced the wrong answer to question 14 4. x(D): H introduced the wrong answer to question 46 Question Number : 173 Question Id : 1890 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following two groups of people has identical sources? (I) A, D and G (II) E and H Options : 1. x(A): Only (I) 2. x(B): Only (II) 3. x(C): Neither (I) nor (II) 4. ?(D): Both (I) and (II) These questions have been copied nearly verbatim from Question numbers 141 to 145 in the CAT2003 test paper. Source: COMMON ADMISSION TEST SOLVED PAPERS & MOCK TEST PAPERS (Upkar Prakashan, 2010) 63, available at https://books.google.co.in/books?id=DvqcyVoSQQC&pg=PA63&lpg=PA63&dq=Recently, +the+answers+of+a+test+held+nationwide+were+leaked +to+a+group+of+unscrupulous+people. +The+investigative+agency+has+arrested+the+mastermin d+and+nine+other+people+A,+B,+C,+D,+E,+F,+G,+H, +and+I+in+this+matter.+Interrogating+them, +the+following+facts+have+been+obtained+regarding+th eir+operation. +Initially+the+mastermind+obtains+the+correct+answerkey.+All+the+others+create+their+answerkeys+in+the+following+manner. +They+obtain+the+answer+key+from+one+or+two+peopl e+who+already+possess+the+same.&source=bl&ots=fkMV cLA3vF&sig=OortlH7TAHSr2Ck7GsyRb4q8cmw&hl=en&sa=X &ved=0CCYQ6AEwAWoVChMI5YnOiqb8xgIVATOUCh2tTADf#v =onepage&q&f=false. Question Id : 1891 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (174 to 178) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the following question, a group of numerals is given followed by four groups of symbol /letter combinations lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). Numerals are to be coded as per the codes and conditions. You have to find out which of the combinations (A), (B), (C) and (D) is correct and indicate your answer accordingly. Numerals: 3 5 7 4 2 6 3 1 Letter/symbol code: * B E A @ F K % Following conditions apply: 1. If the first digit as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as 'X'. 2. If the first digit as well as the last digit is even, both are to be coded as '$'. 3. If the last digit is '0', it is to be coded as #. Sub questions Question Number : 174 Question Id : 1892 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Find out the combination for : 487692 Options : 1. x(A): $KEFM@ 2. x(B): AKEFM@ 3. x(C): AKFEM@ 4. ?(D): $KEFM$ Question Number : 175 Question Id : 1893 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Find out the combination for : 713540 Options : 1. x(A): X%*BA# 0 R 9 M 2. ?(B): E%*BA# 3. x(C): E%BAR 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 176 Question Id : 1894 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Find out the combination for : 765082 Options : 1. x(A): EFB#K@ 2. x(B): XFBRK@ 3. ?(C): EFBRK@ 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 177 Question Id : 1895 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Find out the combination for : 364819 Options : 1. x(A): *FAK%X 2. x(B): XFAK&M 3. x(C): *FAK%M 4. ?(D): None of the above Question Number : 178 Question Id : 1896 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Find out the combination for : 546839 Options : 1. ?(A): XAFK*X 2. x(B): XAFK*M 3. x(C): BAFK*X 4. x(D): None of the above These questions have been copied nearly verbatim, with only the order of questions changed and some of the options altered, from Question numbers 11 to 15 in DR. LAL & KUMAR, VERBAL REASONING (Upkar Prakashan, 2010) 349. Question Id : 1897 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (179 to 181) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : From the alternatives given below. Choose the best option that correctly classifies the four sentences as a : F: Fact: I f it relates to a known matter of direct observation, or an existing reality or something known to be true. J: Judgment: If it is an opinion or estimate or anticipation of common sense or intention. I: Inference: if it is a logical conclusion or deduction about something based on the knowledge of facts. Sub questions Question Number : 179 Question Id : 1898 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. Everyday social life is impossible without interpersonal relationships. B. The root of many misunderstandings has been cited in poor relations among individuals. C. Assuming the above to be true, social life will be much better if people understand the importance of good interpersonal relations. D. A study reveals that interpersonal relations and hence life in general can be improved with a little effort on the part of individuals. Options : 1. x(A): FJIJ 2. ?(B): JFIF 3. x(C): FIFJ 4. x(D): IFFJ Question Number : 180 Question Id : 1899 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. The Cabinet minister definitely took the wrong step in giving the government contract. B. Under the circumstances, he had many other alternatives. C. The Prime Minister is embarrassed due to the minister's decision. D. If he has put the government in jeopardy, the minister must resign. Options : 1. ?(A): JFFI 2. x(B): IFJI 3. x(C): FFJI 4. x(D): IFIJ Question Number : 181 Question Id : 1900 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. I f democracy is to survive, the people must develop a sense of consumerism. B. Consumerism has helped improve the quality of goods in certain countries. C. The protected environment in our country is helping the local manufacturers. D. The quality of goods suffers if the manufacturers take undue advantage of this. Options : 1. x(A): IJFJ 2. ?(B): JFJI 3. x(C): IJJF 4. x(D): IFJJ These questions have been copied nearly verbatim from Question numbers 1, 2 and 4, respectively, in the Practice Exercise on page 2.33 in NISHIT K. SINHA, THE PEARSON GUIDE TO VERBAL ABILITY AND LOGICAL REASONING FOR CAT (Pearson Education India, 2014) 2.33, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=W5WKBAAAQBAJ&printsec=frontcover&source=gbs_ge_s ummary_r&cad=0#v=onepage&q&f=false. Question Id : 1901 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (182 to 184) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the best option which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements. Sub questions Question Number : 182 Question Id : 1902 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. Traffic congestion increases carbon monoxide in the environment. B. Increase in carbon monoxide is hazardous to wealth. C. Traffic congestion is hazardous to health. D. Some traffic congestion does not cause increase carbon monoxide. E. Some traffic congestion is not hazardous to health Options : 1. ?(A): CBA 2. x(B): BDE 3. x(C): CDE 4. x(D): BAC For the above question, User had specified 'full' during keys upload. Question Number : 183 Question Id : 1903 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. MBAs are in great demand. B. Samrat and Akshita are in great demand. C. Samrat is in great demand. D. Akshita is in great demand. E. Samrat and Akshita are MBAs Options : 1. x(A): ABE 2. x(B): ECD 3. ?(C): AEB 4. x(D): EBA Question Number : 184 Question Id : 1904 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. All software companies employ knowledge workers. B. Infotech employees are knowledge workers. C. Infotech is a software company. D. Some software companies employ knowledge workers. E. Infotech employs only knowledge workers. Options : 1. x(A): ABC 2. ?(B): ACB 3. x(C): CDB 4. x(D): ACE This question has been copied verbatim from the CAT 1999 test paper. Questions 182 and 183 are exact reproductions of Question numbers 120 and 112, respectively, in the CAT paper, and Question 184 is also a direct reproduction of Question number 111 from the CAT paper, with only the name of the company in the source question changed. Source: ARUN SHARMA AND MEENAKSHI UPADHYAY, TEST SERIES FOR THE CAT ONLINE (Tata McGraw-Hill, 2012) IV.26, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=wtDGMIej7swC&printsec=frontcover&source=gbs_ge_su mmary_r&cad=0#v=onepage&q&f=false. Question Id : 1905 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (185 to 186) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Read the following information carefully to choose best option for the question: A. 'L%M' means that M is brother of L. B. 'L x M' means that L is mother of M. C. 'L?A' means that L is the sister of M. D. 'L = M' means that M is father of L. Sub questions Question Number : 185 Question Id : 1906 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following means "I is the nephew of Q?" 1. Q%J=I 2. Q?MxB%I 3. C?I=B%Q Options : 1. x(A): Only 3 2. x(B): Only 1 3. x(C): Only 2 4. ?(D): None of the above Question Number : 186 Question Id : 1907 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 If 'A $ B' means that A is the father of B, 'A B' means that A is the mother of B, 'A C B' means that A is the wife of B, then which of the following means that M is the grand-mother of N? Options : 1. x(A): M * R $ T @ N 2. x(B): M * R @ T @ N 3. x(C): M * T $ N @ R 4 ?(D):M * T $ N @ R These questions have been copied verbatim from Question numbers 13 and 15, respectively, on the website http://infomind.in/reasoning/blood-relation. Question Id : 1908 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (187 to 189) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : The question contains two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the information provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give your answer as: Answer (1) If the information in the statement I alone are sufficient to answer the questions. Answer (2) If the information in the statement II alone are sufficient to answer the questions. Answer (3) If the information either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the questions. Answer (4) If the information even in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the questions. Sub questions Question Number : 187 Question Id : 1909 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Can a democratic system operate without an effective opposition? I. The opposition is indispensable. II. A good politician always learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. Options : 1. x(A): Answer (1) 2. x(B): Answer (2) 3. ?(C): Answer (3) 4. x (D): Answer (4) Question Number : 188 Question Id : 1910 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Do habits make men's life rigid? I. It is out of habit that people envy others. II. Men become slave of habits. Options : 1. x(A): Answer (1) 2. ?(B): Answer (2) 3. x(C): Answer (3) 4. x(D): Answer (4) Question Number : 189 Question Id : 1911 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Does intelligence predict the child's ability to learn? I. Intelligence is unaffected by bad teaching or dull home environment. II. Children from poor home backgrounds do not do well in their school-work. Options : 1. x(A): Answer (1) 2. x(B): Answer (2) 3. x(C): Answer (3) 4. ?(D): Answer (4) These questions have been copied verbatim from Question numbers 19, 18 and 17, respectively, in Exercise 18 in MAT MANAGEMENT APTITUDE TEST (Bright Publications) 215, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=4Y1vzt5LSPIC&printsec=frontcover&source=gbs_ge_sum mary_r&cad=0#v=onepage&q&f=false. Question Id : 1912 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (190 to 192) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the following question some capital alphabets are written in a row, below them their coding has been given. In the question, a particular word has been coded in a particular manner using codes as given below the capital letters. You have to understand the pattern of coding and have to answer the question asked subsequently. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z U a 2 v b w 3 t 4 x s y 5 z 6 c d 8 7 e r h 9 l p q Sub questions Question Number : 190 Question Id : 1913 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 If DASH is 2a84, then SMASH is? Options : 1. x(A): 7 5 U 7 t 2. x(B): e y a 8 4 3. ?(C): 8 z q e 3 4. x(D): 8 z q e 4 This question is copied verbatim from the website http://www.simplylearnt.com/test-question/MTEwODQ5. Question Id : 1916 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (193 to 194) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : The question contains two statements and two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the two given statements. Answer (1) If only conclusion I follows. Answer (2) If only conclusion II follows. Answer (3) If neither I nor II follows. Answer (4) If both I and II follows. Sub questions Question Number : 193 Question Id : 1917 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Statements: I. Some players are singers. II. All singers are tall. Conclusions: I. Some players are tall. II. All players are tall. Options : 1. ?(A): Answer (1) 2. x(B): Answer (2) 3. x(C): Answer (3) 4. x(D): Answer (4) Question Number : 194 Question Id : 1918 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Statements: I. Some vegetables are fruits. II. No fruit is black. Conclusions: I. Some fruits are vegetables. II. No vegetable is black. Options : 1. ?(A): Answer (1) 2. x(B): Answer (2) 3. x(C): Answer (3) 4. x(D): Answer (4) These question have been copied verbatim from Question numbers 1 and 3 respectively on the website http://infomind.in/reasoning/syllogism. Question Number : 197 Question Id : 1921 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 From the word 'LAPAROSCOPY', how many independent meaningful English words can be made without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once? Options : 1. x(A): 1 2. ?(B): 2 3. x(C): 3 4. x(D): 4 This question has been copied verbatim from Model Questions, Question number 7 in R.C. AGGARWAL, A NEW APPROACH TO VERBAL & NON-VERBAL REASONING (Bright Publications) 173, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=RAqn0w7BPHMC&printsec=frontcover&source=gbs_ge_s ummary_r&cad=0#v=onepage&q&f=false. Question Number : 198 Question Id : 1922 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 If Monday falls on 1st of October, which day will fall three days after the 20th in that month? Options : 1 x(A): Monday 2. ?(B): Tuesday S. x(C): Saturday 4. x(D): Wednesday This question has been copied verbatim from Practice Paper 5, Question 48 in SANJEEV JOON, COMPLETE GUIDE FOR SSC (STAFF SELECTION COMMMISSION) - STENOGRAPHERS GRADE 'C' AND GRADE 'D' EXAMINATION (Tata McGraw-Hill, 2011) 5.105, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=qfMc_A5pRyUC&printsec=frontcover&source=gbs_ge_su mmary_r&cad=0#v=onepage&q&f=false. Question Number : 199 Question Id : 1923 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 In the word GRAPHOLOGIST, if 1st and 7th letters. 2nd and 9th letters, 3rd and 11th letters, 4th and 8th letter, and 5th and 12th letters are mutually interchanged then which letter will be. 6th letter from the left of 10th letter from the left side? Options : 1. x(A): S 2. x(B): T 3. x(C): G 4. ?(D): None of the above This question has been copied verbatim from Exercise-I, Question number 17 in NEW PARADIGM REASONING TEST (Pratiyogita Darpan ed., Upkar Prakashan, 2010) 6R, available at https://books.google.co.in/books? id=ZohiQ_xiIOYC&printsec=frontcover&source=gbs_ge_sum mary_r&cad=0#v=onepage&q&f=false. Question Number : 200 Question Id : 1924 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The son of M is the father of N and grandfather (Mother's father) of R. S is the daughter of N and sister of B. On the basis of this information, how is M related to B? Options : 1. x(A): Grandfather 2. x(B): Grandmother 3. x(C): Grandmother's mother 4. ?(D): None of the above The question has been copied verbatim, along with three of its options, from Question number 9 on the website http://exam2win.com/logical-reasoning/blood-relationtest/part1/questions-answers-2.jsp. ANNEXURE P-15 OTHER DEFECTS IN THE ADMINISTRATION OF CLAT Prepared by Vineet Bhalla I. DEFECTIVE ALLOCATION OF SEATS 1. The CLAT Implementation Committee (IC) is conferred with the responsibility of preparing merit lists and alloting students to various NLU's, taking into account their overall CLAT rank and their individual preferences. The increasing number of CLAT takers necessitates an efficient and experienced team to run this process in a professional manner. The NLUs are, however, thoroughly ill-equipped and under resourced to undertake this mammoth exercise. Past experiences, as highlighted below, more than amply demonstrates the need for a more thorough professional unit to manage these lists and consequent seat allotments: CLAT - 2008 (organized by the National Law School of India University, Bangalore) 2. Nagar Sankar Rajendra, a CLAT candidate secured Rank 62 under the Scheduled Caste (SC) Quota. As per his ranking and personal preference, he was eligible for admission to the W. B. National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata. The Organizing University (Respondent No. 3) however, allotted him to GNLU, a university featuring at the bottom of his preference. Although the Organizing University (respondent no. 3) admitted its fault and promised to rectify the error, the candidate could not secure admission in time, as the admission process at WBNUJS had closed and WBNUJS declined him admission. 3. The candidate, NS Rajendra then approached the Kolkata High court, which transferred him to WBNUJS, holding that: 14. .. once a candidate, who has exercised option, secures a particular placement on the basis of marks and rank, he obtains a valuable and an inalienable right which cannot be taken away. Therefore, any action dislodging him from such placement is uncalled for. In the instant case, as admittedly there were errors in the second list, the petitioner on the basis of option, marks and rank, was entitled to placement in NUJS, Kolkata. .. 17. Therefore, in the facts and circumstances, the respondent Nos. 1 and 2 are directed to admit the petitioner to NUJS, Kolkata by 4th August, 2008. ..11 CLAT - 2012 (organized by National Law University, Jodhpur) 4. The initial allotment list published by the Organizing University contained a number of errors, whereby the stated preferences of a large number of students were not taken into account. Around 125 students complained that they were allotted seats that were far lower on their preference list, despite their CLAT scores entitling them to universities that ranked higher on their preference list. The Organising University blamed these discrepancies on 'human error.' 12 Subsequently, a new list was released on June 1, 2012.13 CLAT - 2013 (organized by Hidayatullah National Law University, Raipur) 5. Here again, there were significant discrepancies in the first allotment list released on June 2, 2013. Five Nagar Sankar Rajendra vs. Respondent: Vice-Chancellor, West Bengal National Law University of Juridical Sciences and Ors., 2008(4)CHN349 11 Legally India, CLAT 2012 university list may contain errors that will be fixed 'judiciously' in June, says NLU-J VC, May 31, 2012, available at http://www.legallyindia.com/201205312859/Pre-law-student/clat-2012-university-listmay-contain-errors-that-will-be-fixed-judiciously-in-june-says-nlu-j-vc (Last visited on August 7, 2015). 13 Legally India, Download new, reshuffled 2012 CLAT University Allotment; NUJS now tops NLIU in prefs again, June 1, 2012, available at http://www.legallyindia.com/201206012863/Pre-law-student/download-newreshuffled-2012-clat-university-allotment (Last visited on August 7, 2015). 12 students from Kerala were allocated CNLU, Patna, despite them being eligible for NUALS, Kerala, a college that was challenged higher this on their wrongful preference allotment list. in They Harima Hariharan v. Common Law Admission Test (WP No. 14397/2013). Given that the allotments were later rectified in favour of the petitioners, the petition was rendered infructuous. 6. Additionally, an ST candidate from Nagaland was not allotted a seat at any of the NLU's, despite being entitled to a seat to WBNUJS. The then CLAT Convenor (the Vice Chancellor of HNLU, Raipur) initially blamed candidates for making errors in their registrations form. Later, however, the organising University (HNLU) released a new rank list rectifying these errors. A "technical error" was blamed for the discrepancy. 14 The new list resulted in changes to the ranks of more than 50 students!15 CLAT - 2014 (organized by Gujarat National Law University, Gandhinagar) Legally India, CLAT 2013: complainants find desired place on revised university list, June 12, 2013, available at http://www.legallyindia.com/201306123746 (Last visited on August 7, 2015). 15 Legally India, Lower CLAT prefs in shambles after 'correction'; 1 each bounced out of top schools; Nuals drops one rank, June 12, 2013, available at http://www.legallyindia.com/201306123747/Pre-law-student/clat-2013-prefs-chaosafter-reshuffle (Last visited on August 7, 2015). 14 7. Soon after declaring the results on May 31, 2014, the Organising University immediately announced that they were withholding the results owing to a "technical discrepancy"; the candidates were further instructed to "keep checking" their login account, so that they could get updated information about CLAT. 16 The revised results were notified to the students via their login accounts on June 6, albeit without being made publicly available. In its note on the results, GNLU instructed candidates who wished to verify their OMR answer sheets to fill a form available on the CLAT website and then physically visit GNLU with their admit card and identity proof between June 7 and 10. 17 Expecting candidates to travel all the way to Gandhinagar, Gujarat to verify their answer sheets in a short window of four days, with just one day's prior notice was highly unreasonable, to say the least. As a result of this incompetence, the entire admissions process was severely compromising, causing considerable hardship to candidates and their guardians/parents. 8. Additionally, the CLAT Organizing University, GNLU faced litigation over its seat allocation lists. In Gujarat The Hindu, CLAT 2014 results withheld, June 2, 2014, available at http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/clat-2014-resultswithheld/article6072538.ece (Last visited on August 7, 2015). 17 The Times of India, After the botch-up, CLAT results revised, June 7, 2014, available at http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/education/entrance-exams/After-thebotch-up-CLAT-results-revised/articleshow/36167717.cms (Last visited on August 7, 2015). 16 National Law University vs Namita Chandrahas Gupta, decided on July 3, 2014, the Gujarat High Court confirmed the order of a single Judge of the same court revising the marks and rank of the petitioner due to a silly bonafide error by the petitioner in filing up her answer sheet which resulted in her answer script being evaluated on the basis of an incorrect booklet series. The court ordered that the petitioner be allotted a seat on the merit of her revised rank.18 9. Similarly, in Ms. Manjushree RM vs the CLAT-2014 Secretariat, decided on July 7, 2014, the Karnataka High Court recognized the error on the part of the respondent in not responding to an email clarification sought by the petitioner. The petitioner was entitled to reservation as an SC (Scheduled Caste) candidate. However, in her registration form, she had indicated her category as 'General Merit' instead of SC. On downloading her admit card, she realised the error and sought to correct it immediately vide an email addressed to the organizing university (Respondent Number Organizing university was not a respondent; only the CLAT secretariat was). The respondent alleged that the email was addressed to the organizing University and not to the CLAT2014 Secretariat. The judge however held that the email ought to have been brought to the notice of the respondent by the organizing university and it should have informed the Gujarat National Law University vs Namita Chandrahas Gupta, (Letters Patent Appeal No. 782/2014) (Guj HC), paras 12, 14. 18 petitioner of its stand. Since that was not done, she was allowed to be recognised as an SC candidate after the results were declared. Furthermore, in consideration of her revised rank in the SC category, NALSAR was directed to admit her as an additional SC candidate.19 10. It is humbly submitted that in both these cases, had the CLAT Secretariat been more fair and just in their treatment of these legitimate concerns, the consequent litigation could have been avoided and justice would have been served, without a bitter court battle, that unnecessarily drew resources and time away from the work of the CLAT committee. II. MAL-ADMINISTRATION & INEFFICIENT MANAGEMENT CLAT - 2009 (organized by NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad) 11. The examination was postponed, due to a suspected leak of the question paper, while in transit from Hyderabad to Lucknow. The question papers were being sent from NALSAR, Hyderabad to RMLNLU, Lucknow in four metal boxes through private courier service. The locks of two of the containers were found to have been tampered with and a few question Ms. Manjushree RM vs the CLAT-2014 Secretariat (WP No. 26776/2014) (Kar HC), paras 5-7. 19 papers were missing. Police complaints were lodged in Lucknow and Hyderabad after the matter came to light. A fresh exam paper had to be reformulated, resulting in wastage of time and resources (allegedly an additional cost of Rs. 25 lakhs).20 CLAT - 2013 (organized by Hidayatullah National Law University, Raipur) 12. The date of the examination, May 12, 2013, coincided with the date of the ComedK (Consortium of Medical, Engineering and Dental colleges of Karnataka), compelling a number of candidates interested in both the exams to pick one and forego the other.21 CLAT - 2014 (organized by Gujarat National Law University, Gandhinagar) 13. The Organizing University refused to publish candidate ranks owing to 'technical discrepancies', but only published their test scores. It was later explained that there was a mismatch between the barcode sticker affixed on the front page of OMR answer sheet and candidate sticker affixed on the back page.22 This could cause marks of one student Moneycontrol, CLAT likely to be held towards May end, May 15, 2009, available at http://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/clat-likely-to-be-held-towards-mayend_397771.html?utm_source=ref_article (Last visited on August 7, 2015). 21 The Times of India, CLAT leaves a 'negative' mark, May 13, 2013, available at http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bengaluru/CLAT-leaves-a-negativemark/articleshow/20020286.cms (Last visited on August 7, 2015). 22 Legally India, GNLU promises to fix CLAT blunder caused by 'mismatching' barcodes, June 2, 2014, available at http://www.legallyindia.com/201406024763/Pre20 being reflected against the roll number of another. All answer sheets (32,000) had to be reconciled for the said discrepancy.23 The ranks were released after a manual verification of the OMR sheets on June 6, 2014. VI. INCONSISTENCY IN CLAT POLICY 14. The following changes in the CLAT pattern and policy over the years reflect a clear lack of rationale and ad-hocism: 15. While CLAT-2009 purportedly sought to test the aptitude of a candidate under a section titled "legal aptitude", it did not ask a single question on aptitude. Rather, all the questions tested for the candidate's prior knowledge of law, as documented earlier.24 16. Similar to CLAT-2009, the Legal Aptitude section of CLAT-2010 also tested only for prior knowledge of legal facts and principles. Further, a number of questions (Question Nos. 141-145) in the Logical Reasoning section of the test paper resembled the Legal Aptitude questions from CLAT-2008, as they demanded law-student/gnlu-promises-to-fix-clat-blunder-caused-by-mismatching-barcodes (Last visited on August 7, 2015). 23 Legally India, CLAT results still wrong & mixed up claim students, despite GNLU's new 'reconciliated' results, June 6, 2014, available at http://www.legallyindia.com/201406064780/Pre-law-student/clat-results-still-wrongmixed-up-claim-students-despite-gnlu-s-new-reconciliated-results (Last visited on August 7, 2015). 24 See CLAT 2009 test paper. application of stated legal principles to a set of facts. 25 17. WBNUJS's CLAT-2011 was criticized by many for being extremely lengthy. It consisted of four comprehension passages in the English section, which was a major departure from the previous CLAT papers that contained just one comprehension passage each.26 18. WBNUJS's CLAT-2011 was the first one to clearly outline a syllabus (that it published on the CLAT website) stipulating that the legal aptitude section would only test for aptitude. And not contain any questions testing for prior legal knowledge. Further, the syllabus also clearly stated that only "current" events would be tested for under the GK/Current Affairs heading and that static general knowledge would not be tested. Current events were defined as questions pertaining to events spanning a period of roughly one year preceding the test. 19. CLAT 2012 also followed the same syllabus as CLAT 2011. However, in its paper, a number of questions were clearly outside the scope of the prescribed syllabus in both the Legal Aptitude and General Knowledge/Current Affairs section. It tested for prior knowledge of law and asked questions pertaining to static General Knowledge.27 25 26 27 See CLAT 2010 test paper. See CLAT 2011 test paper. See CLAT 2012 test paper. 20. HNLU's CLAT-2013 then changed the syllabus to include "static" questions again within the section on GK/Current Affairs.28 However, much to the hardship of the candidates for CLAT-2013, this change was notified only on December 2012, a mere five months prior to the actual test, giving candidates insufficient time to prepare for these drastic changes. 21. RMLNLU's CLAT-2015 reverted to the earlier pattern where students were tested for prior legal knowledge. 29 As noted earlier, many of the questions related to pure legal knowledge that did not demand any application to facts, despite the syllabus clearly stating that the section would offer legal principles and ask that they be applied to facts. 22. It is not clear as to why despite a clear policy formulation in 2011 that prior legal knowledge will not be tested, later CLAT organizing universities have gone back to testing this and unduly compromising candidates into studying excessive amounts of legal doctrine, case law and precepts even prior to entering law school. Many of these questions are likely to puzzle even the best of lawyers and judges, were they tested on these questions on the spot. Bar & Bench, CLAT 2013 Negative marking introduced Static GK makes a comeback, December 24, 2012, available at http://barandbench.com/clat-2013-negativemarking-introduced-static-gk-makes-comeback/ (Last visited on August 7, 2015). 29 See CLAT 2015 test paper. 28 23. During the initial CLAT days (CLAT 2008-10), candidates had to fill in their university preferences in the CLAT registration form itself. This policy was changed in 2011 by WBNUJS, which asked for college preferences only after the declaration of results. While this change was predicated on the sympathetic sentiment that candidates are often ill-equipped and prepared to indicate college preferences while filling out their CLAT application forms, this change led to systematic delays in publication of accurate university allocation lists across multiple CLATs. Therefore the CLATS that followed from 2012 onwards did away with this and reverted to the earlier system of having candidates fill in their preferences at the start. However, in 2015, RMLNLU again reverted to the policy of seeking university preferences from candidates after the declaration of results. No clear reasons were offered to account for this sudden change in policy. ANNEXURE P-16 List of Errors: CLAT 2015 There are three actions to be taken to compensate the occurrence of these errors. A. Those questions where the answer needs to be changed. B. Question needs to be cancelled A: Answers needs to changed (12 questions) Question No. 10 The correct Answer should be option 'D' instead of option 'C'. Question No. 23 The correct Answer should be option 'D' instead of option 'A'. Question No. 25 The correct answer is option 'C' instead of option 'D'. The answer is incorrect. The analogy given is Dulcet: Raucous. The relationship between the two is clearly antonymous in nature. One needed to go for a pair showing a similar relationship. Question No. 113 The question and options are confusing. Still the best answer is option A and not C. It is a well settled legal principle that the burden of proof always rests with the party instituting the suit unless the contrary is mandated by law. Moreover, given the set of facts that clearly state that Mr. X was usually of sound mind, which further presses upon the fact that deviation from usual mental state need be proven by the other party and not Mr. X. According to the principle, a person cannot enter into a contract if he was of unsound mind at the time. There is no mention of the concept of burden of proof in the principle. Applying the principle, A is the correct answer. Question No. 115 In order to answer this question, the ambit of 'course of employment' need be understood. Here, course of employment refers only to dropping the customer and coming back. It is true that the accident has taken place when the driver was coming back, and thus it is within the course of employment; but dropping Ruhina safely was never within the course of employment and hence the employer firm is not liable. "Acting in the course of employment" means the worker acting at his or her employer's direction or in the furtherance of his or her employer's business. This is the currently accepted legal definition. Picking up his fiancee was not in the course of his employment. If he had gone on a murder spree while driving back, it would not be considered to be in the course of employment and the company would not be responsible. Likewise, there is no liability here. "One day, the Manager asked him to drop a customer at the airport and get back at the earliest". Moreover, there was a clear instruction for a speedy return without any other delays. Considering these, option B is the most appropriate. Question No. 116 Answer should be B. Reason: In this question the shopkeeper was doing legal work and it was a case of necessity. If the queue gets long, that's not his problem. And it definitely doesn't amount to nuisance. Essentials Of Public Nuisance : a. Wrongful Act. b. Injury or loss caused by such act to another. c. Unlawful Interference. In the given facts of question 116 none of the essentials are fulfilled. In CLAT 2013 same question was given and the answer was B. The principle clearly states that the interference has to be unlawful, and in the instant case; the interference is not unlawful because the defendant has committed no wrong. The act alleged of causing nuisance is that of the customers and cannot be attributed to the shopkeeper. In this case, the answer (A) does not seem to be correct at all. The answer should be (B) i.e. not liable. Going by the principle, the defendant can't be made liable for nuisance. There was 'unlawful interference'. Question No. 122 Given principle clearly states that in circumstances when silence is equivalent to speech, there is a duty to speak. In the given set of facts, A is auctioning the horse and it shall be presumed by all the bidders that it is of sound mind if nothing at all is spoken in that regard. The given answer (C) is incorrect. Can recall having read this question elsewhere. There was a duty upon A to tell B about the unsoundness of the horse. He should be held liable for fraud. Hence (a) is the correct answer. Question No. 124 They have considered answer (D) correct whereas the correct option should be (C). In fact, the same question appears in previous entrance exams of NLSIU (1996) and NALSAR (1998) and the answer has always been that - one need not consider the delicate nature/special circumstance of a neighbour. It is a sensible case because no one in the neighbourhood gets disturbed with that sound. Same question was asked in question of NLS 1996 and the answer was C. Question No. 182 In this question, in statement 'B' the word 'wealth' is misspelled and should be written as 'health', otherwise the question is unsolvable. If we consider the question with wealth treated as health in statement B, then the correct option should be "D" instead of "A". Question No. 185 The statement "2" clearly explains that I is a male and he is the brother of B. The mother of I and B is M, who has a sister Q. So clearly, statement 2 says that "I is the nephew of Q. So option 3 should be the correct answer instead of Answer 4. Question No. 187 The answer should be option 'A' instead of option 'C'. The second data is not relevant. Question No. 197 The answer should be option 'C' instead of option 'B'. 3 words are formed LAP, PAR and COPY B: Question needs to be cancelled B1: no correct option (6 questions) Question No. 2 The answer is incorrect. For the second sentence the correct option is censured and not censored. Critics censure and not censor. No other option is correct. Question No. 6 None of the options are correct. Question No. 30 The correct answer has been marked as 'C'. Ideally, the word "change" should be replaced with "exchange" to get the correct answer. Thus there is no correct option. Question No. 35 The answer for question 35 is definitely wrong. The official answer is option D - discouragement of exports. This is wrong. Nowhere does the author in the passage talk about the government discouraging exports. The passage talks about the government discouraging imports. This means option B should be the correct option: discouragement of imports. Question No. 37 The passage does not have any reference to "politicians", it has only talked about the "government" and to extrapolate Government to all politicians will be incorrect. The correct answer should have been "Indian government has been myopic in its vision of the country's requirement. If this is ignored and we choose to read Politicians as Policies or treat them equivalent to government, even then there are two correct options - option 'A' and option 'B'. Question No. 184 Wrong answer. B cannot be necessarily concluded from A and C. All Infotech employees may not be knowledge workers. B: Question needs to be cancelled B2: answer is debatable (5 questions) Question No. 56 As per annual revenue, Amazon is a larger e-commerce company; but as per market capital, Alibaba is a larger ecommerce company. Thus the answer becomes debatable. Question No. 114 The answer is debatable. The option 'C' can also be an answer, and the option 'B' requires Legal Knowledge. Question No. 117 There is no mention of the meanings of "culpable homicide" or "murder". In the facts, there is no mention of "unsound mind of the father" in the question. Thus, the answer is debatable. There is no express statement that 'A' is unsound of mind. If his sanity is determined by the fact that he threw an infant into the well, the facts should have bee clearer. There are records of nine week old babies learning to swim. The three-year-old could have been a proficient swimmer. The question is flawed and marks should be awarded for all candidates. Question No. 136 This question is highly debatable because it is really difficult to conclude as to whether the act of running towards the well constitutes attempt or preparation. In my view, it is definitely a stage past preparation because she has started running towards the well and is also stating that she is going to jump. Moreover, the explanation is untenable because it is presumed in law that a man is intending what he/she is consciously saying. Question No. 137 The answer is highly debatable. B: Question needs to be cancelled B3: Question is wrong (14 questions) Question No. 22 The word "but" should not have been underlined in the question. Thus, the question is wrong and all the options are incorrect as a result. Question No. 161 -168 The data is confusing. This makes answer of 166 and 168 doubtful. Question No. 169 -173 The question is picked up from CAT 2003 but copied wrongly. The data given in the table is wrong. For the person "I", the numbers of the blanks answers should be 17, 46, 90 instead of 17, 26, 90. This error must have disturbed many and the set should be cancelled. It is also affecting the answer of 169 directly. B: Question needs to be cancelled B4: Question has misprint (2 questions) Question No. 186 Two options 3 and 4 are the same. Question No. 191 The word "FASHION" is a seven-letter word, but the corresponding code has 6 alpha-numericals. Thus, the question is unsolvable. Typo error in question - z64t7uw is required ANNEXURE P-17 Ram Manohar Lohia National Law University Notations : 1.Options shown in green color and with ?icon are correct. 2.Options shown in red color and with x icon are incorrect. Question Paper Name: Common Law Admission CLAT 2015 UNDER GRADUATE COURSES Actual Subject Name: UNDER GRADUATE COURSES Creation Date: 2015-04-28 11:07:20.0 Cut Off: 0 Duration: 120 Number of Questions: Total Marks: 113 200.0 Group 1 Group Number : Group Id : 1 10 Group Maximum Duration : 0 Group Minimum Duration : 120 Revisit allowed for view? : Revisit allowed for edit? : Break time: Group Marks: English 0 200 No No Test Section Id : 38 Section Number : Section type : 1 Online Mandatory or Optional: Mandatory Number of Questions: 10 Number of Questions to be attempted: 10 Section Marks: 40.0 Sub-Section Number: Sub-Section Id: 1 38 Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Id : 1701 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (1 to 3) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the question, there are five sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words 'phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one. Sub questions Question Number : 1 Question Id : 1702 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The further [A]/ farther [B] he pushed himself, the more disillusioned he grew. For the crowd it was more of a historical [A]/historic [B] event; for their leader it was just another day. The old has a healthy distrust [A]/mistrust[B] for all new technology. The film is based on a worthy [A]/true [B] story. She coughed discreetly [A]/discretely [B] to announce her presence. Options : 1. x (A): BBAAB 2. ?(B): ABBBA 3. x (C): BABBA 4. x. (D): BBAAB Question Number : 2 Question Id : 1703 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Regrettably [A] / Regretfully [B] I have to decline your invitation. The critics censored [A] / censured [B] the new movie because of its social unacceptability. He was besides [A] / beside [B] himself with range when I told him what I had done. Anita had a beautiful broach [A]/brooch [B] on the lapel of her jacket. He has the same capacity as an adult to consent [A] / assent [R to surgical treatment. Options : 1. ?(A): BABBA 2. x (B): BBAAB 3. x (C): ABBBA 4. x (D): BBAAB Question Number : 3 Question Id : 1704 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The prisoner's interment [A] / internment [B] came to an end with his early release She managed to bite back the ironic [A]/caustic [B] retort on the tip of her tongue. Jeans that flair [A]/ flare [R] at the bottom are in fashion these days. They heard the bells peeling [A] / pealing [B] far and wide. The students baited [A]/bated [B] the instructor with irrelevant questions. Options : 1. x(A): BBABB 2. x(B): ABBBB 3. x(C): BABBA 4. ?(D): BBBBA Question Id : 1705 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (4 to 6) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences. Sub questions Question Number : 4 Question Id : 1706 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A) I want to do an MBA before going into business. B) Priti's husband has been on active service for three months. C) The horse suddenly broke into a buckle. D) I need to file an insurance claim. Options : 1. x (A): B and A 2. ?(B): C Only 3. x (C): B and C 4. x (D): B, C and D Question Number : 5 Question Id : 1707 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A) I must run fast to catch up with him B) The newly released book is enjoying a popular run. C) The doctor is on a hospital round. D) You can't run over him like that. Options : 1. x (A): A and 2. ?(B): D only 3. x (C): A, C and D 4. x (D): A only Question Number : 6 Question Id : 1708 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A) The letter was posted to the address. B) Your stand is beyond all reasons. C) How do you deal with friend who doesn't listen to a reason? D) My wife runs profitable business in this suburb. Options : 1. x (A): A only 2. x (B): D only 3. x (C): B and C 4. ?(D): C and D Question Id : 1709 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (7 to 12) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Fill up the blanks, numbered [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] and [6] in the passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank. "Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns.' With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3], the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5], and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled." Sub questions Question Number : 7 Question Id : 1710 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Fill up the blank [1] Options : 1. x (A): devious 2. ?(B): blunt 3. x (C): tactful 4. x (D): pretentious Question Number : 8 Question Id : 1711 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Fill up the blank [2] Options : 1. ?(A): interest 2. x (B): taxes 3. x (C): principal 4. x (D): returns Question Number : 9 Question Id : 1712 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Fill up the blank [3] Options : 1. x (A): sanctions 2 x (B): refunds 3. x (C): fees 4. ?(D): fines Question Number : 10 Question Id : 1713 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Fill up the blank [4] Options : 1. x (A): closed 2. x (B): detached 3. ?(C): attached 4. x (D): impounded Question Number : 11 Question Id : 1714 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Fill up the blank [5] Options : 1. x (A): smashed 2. ?(B): seized 3. x (C): dismantled 4. x (D): frozen Question Number : 12 Question Id : 1715 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Fill up the blank [6] Options : 1. x (A): purchaser 2. x (B): victim 3. x (C): investor 4. ?(D): offender Question Id : 1716 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (13 to 14) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Four alternative summaries are given the text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. Sub questions Question Number : 13 Question Id : 1717 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Some decisions will be fairly obvious-"no-brainers". Your bank account is low, but you have a two-week vacation corning up and you want to get away to some place warm to relax with your family. Will you accept your in-laws' offer of free use of their Florida beachfront condo? Sure. You like your employer and feel ready to move forward in your career. Will you step in for your boss for three weeks while she attends a professional development course? Of course. A. Some decisions are obvious under certain circumstances. You may, for example, readily accept a relative's offer of free holiday accommodation. Or step in for your boss when she is away. B. Some decisions are no-brainers. You need not think when making them. Examples are condo offers from in-laws and job offers from bosses when your bank account is low or boss is away. C. Easy decisions are called "no-brainers" because they do not require any cerebral activity. Examples such as accepting free holiday accommodation abound in our lives. D. Accepting an offer from in-laws when you are short on funds and want a holiday is a no-brainer. Another no-brainer is taking the boss's job when she is away. Options : 1. ?(A) A 2. x(B): B 3. x(C):C 4. x(D): D Question Number : 14 Question Id : 1718 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Physically, inertia is a feeling that you just can't move; mentally, it is a sluggish mind. Even if you try to be sensitive, if your mind is sluggish, you just don't feel anything intensely. You may even see a tragedy enacted in front of your eyes and not be able to respond meaningfully. You may see one person exploiting another, one group persecuting another, and not be able to get angry. Your energy is frozen. You are not deliberately refusing to act; you just don't have the capacity. A. Inertia makes your body and mind sluggish. They become insensitive to tragedies, exploitation, and persecution because it freezes your energy and decapacitates it. B. When you have inertia you don't act although you see one person exploiting another or one group persecuting another. You don't get angry because you are incapable. C. Inertia is of two types - physical and mental. Physical inertia restricts bodily movements. Mental inertia prevents response to events enacted in front of your eyes. D. Physical inertia stops your body from moving; mental inertia freezes your energy and stops your mind from responding meaningfully to events, even tragedies, in front of you. Options : 1. x(A): A 2. x(B): B 3. x(C):C 4. ?(D): D Question Id : 1719 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (15 to 19) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : For the word a contextual sentence is given. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context. Sub questions Question Number : 15 Question Id : 1720 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 SPECIOUS: A specious argument is not simply a false one but one that has the ring of truth. Options : 1. x(A): Deceitful 2. x(B): Fallacious 3. ?(C): Credible 4. x(D): Deceptive Question Number : 16 Question Id : 1721 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 OBVIATE: The new mass transit system may obviate the need for the use of personal cars. Options : 1. x (A): Prevent 2. x (3): Forestall 3. x (C): Preclude 4. ?(D): Bolster Question Number : 17 Question Id : 1722 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 DISUSE: Some words fall into disuse as technology makes objects obsolete. Options : 1. , ?(A): Prevalent 2. x(B): Discarded 3. x (C): Obliterated 4. x(D): Unfashionable Question Number : 18 Question Id : 1723 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PARSIMONIOUS: The evidence was constructed from every parsimonious scraps of information. Options : 1. x(A): Prevalent 2. x(B): Penurious 3. x(C): Thrifty 4. ?(D): Altruistic Question Number : 19 Question Id : 1724 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 FACETIOUS: When I suggested that war is a method of controlling population, my father remarked that I was being facetious. Options : 1. ?(A): Jovian 2. x(B): Jovial 3. x(C): Jocular 4. x(D): Joking Question Id : 1725 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (20 to 21) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Answer the question based on the following information. Indicate which of the statements given with that particular question consistent with the description of unreasonable man in the passage below. Unreasonableness is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unreasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill. He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend has finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted, but which cannot be politely refused. I f he is present at an arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two parties, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unreasonable man. Sub questions Question Number : 20 Question Id : 1726 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The unreasonable man tends to Options : 1. x(A): entertain women 2. x(B): be a successful arbitrator when dissenting parties are anxious to agree 3. x(C): be helpful when solicited 4. ?(D): tell a long story to people who have heard it many times before Question Number : 21 Question Id : 1727 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The unreasonable man tends to Options : 1. -d/?(A): bring a higher bidder to a salesman who has just closed a deal 2. x(B): disclose confidential information to others 3. x(C): sing the praise of the bride when he goes to a wedding 4. x(D): sleep late and rise early Question Id : 1728 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (22 to 24) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options. Sub questions Question Number : 22 Question Id : 1729 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The management can still hire freely but cannot scold freely. Options : 1. ?(A): cannot scold at will 2. x(B): cannot give umbrage 3. x(C): cannot take decision to scold 4. x(D): cannot scold willfully Question Number : 23 Question Id : 1730 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 This government has given subsidies to the Navratnas but there is no telling whether the subsequent one will do. Options : 1. ?(A): whether the subsequent government will do so 2. x(B): if the government to follow will accept the policy 3. x(C): if the government to follow will adhere to the policy 4. x(D): no telling whether the subsequent one will do so Question Number : 24 Question Id : 1731 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The Romanians may be restive under Soviet direction but they are tied to Moscow by ideological and military links. Options : 1. ?(A): they are close to Moscow from ideological and military perspective 2. x(B): they are preparing for a greater revolution 3. x(C): secretly they rather enjoy the prestige of being protected by the mighty soviets 4. x(D): there is nothing they can do about it Question Id : 1732 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (25 to 27) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by a pair of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair. Sub questions Question Number : 25 Question Id : 1733 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Dulcet : Raucous Options : 1. x(A): Sweet : Song 2. ?(B): Crazy : Insane 3. x(C): Palliative : Exacerbating 4. x(D): Theory : Practical Question Number : 26 Question Id : 1734 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Malapropism : Words Options : 1. ?(A): Anachronism : Time 2. x(B): Ellipsis : Sentence 3. x(C): Jinjanthropism : Apes 4. x(D): Catechism : Religion Question Number : 27 Question Id : 1735 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Peel : Peal Options : 1. x(A): Coat : Rind 2. x(B): Laugh : Bell S. ?(C): Rain : Reign 4. x(D): Brain : Cranium Question Id : 1736 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (28 to 37) Question Label Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In view of the passage given below. Choose the best option for question. When talks come to how India has done for itself in 50 years of Independence, the world has nothing but praise for our success in remaining a democracy. On other fronts, the applause is less loud. In absolute terms, India has not done too badly, of course, life expectancy has increased. So has literacy. Industry, which was barely a fledging, has grown tremendously. And as far as agriculture is concerned, India has been transformed from a country perpetually on the edge of starvation into a success story held up for others to emulate. But these are competitive times when change is rapid, and to walk slowly when the rest of the world is running is almost as bad as standing still on walking backwards. Compared developing with large world chunks South of Korea, what was Singapore, then the Malaysia, Thailand, Indonesia, China and what was till lately a separate Hong Kong-India has fared abysmally. It began with a far better infrastructure than most of these countries had. It suffered hardly or not at all during the Second World War. It had advantages like an English speaking elite, quality scientific manpower (including a Nobel laureate and others who could be ranked among the world's best) and excellent business acumen. Yet, today, when countries are ranked according to their global competitiveness, it is tiny Singapore that figures at the top. Hong Kong is an export powerhouse. So is Taiwan. If a symbol were needed of how far we have fallen back, note that while Korean Cielos are sold in India, no one is South Korea is rushing to buy an Indian car. The reasons list themselves. Topmost is economic isolationism. The government discouraged imports and encouraged selfsufficiency. Whatever the aim was, the result was the creation of a totally inefficient industry that failed to keep pace with global trends and, therefore, became absolutely uncompetitive. Only when the trade gates were opened a little did this become apparent. The years since then have been spent in merely trying to catch up. That the government actually sheltered its industrialists from foreign competition is a little strange. For in all other respects, it operated under the conviction that businessmen were little more than crooks how were to be prevented from entering the most important areas of the economy, how were to be hamstrung in as many ways as possible, how were to be tolerated in the same way as an inexcisable wart. The high expropriatory rates taxation, the licensing laws, the reservation of whole swathes of industry for the public sector, and the granting of monopolies to the public sector firms were the principle manifestations of this attitude. The government forgot that before wealth could be distributed, it had to be created. The government forgot that it itself could not create, but only squander wealth. Some of the manifestations of the old attitude have changed. Tax rates have fallen. Licensing has been all but abolished. And the gates of global trade have been opened wide. But most of these changes were first by circumstances partly by the foreign exchange bankruptcy of 1991 and the recognition that the government could no longer muster the funds of support the public sector, leave alone expand it. Whether the attitude of the government itself, or that of more than handful of ministers, has changed, is open to question. In many other ways, however, the government has not changed one with. Business still has to negotiate a welter of negotiations. Transparency is still a longer way off. And there is no exit policy. In defending the existing policy, politicians betray an inability to see beyond their noses. A no-exit policy for labour is equivalent to a noentry policy for new business. I f one industry is not allowed to retrench labour, other industries will think a hundred times before employing new labour. In other ways too, the government hurts industries. Public sector monopolies like the department of telecommunications and Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. make it possible for Indian business to operate only at a cost several times that of their counterparts abroad. The infrastructure is in a shambles partly because it is unable to formulate a sufficiently remunerative policy for private business, and partly because it does not have the stomach to change market rates for services. After a burst of activity in the early nineties, the government is dragging its feet. At the rate it is going, it will be another fifty years before the government realizes that a pro-business policy is the best pro-people policy. By then of course, the world would have moved even farther ahead. Sub questions Question Number : 28 Question Id : 1737 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The writer's attitude towards the Government is... Options : 1. ?(A): critical 2. x(B): ironical 3. x(C): sarcastic 4. x(D): derisive Question Number : 29 Question Id : 1738 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The writer is surprised at the Government's attitude towards its industrialists because....... Options : 1. x(A): the government did not need to protect its industrialists. 2. x(B): the issue of competition was non-existent. 3. ?(C): the government looked upon its industrialists as crooks. 4 x(D): the attitude was a conundrum. Question Number : 30 Question Id : 1739 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The Government was compelled to open the economy due to.... Options : 1. x(A): pressure from international market. 2. x(B): pressure from domestic market. 3. ?(C): foreign change bankruptcy and paucity of funds with the government. 4. x(D): All of the above. Question Number : 31 Question Id : 1740 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The writer ends the passage on a note of... Options : 1. x(A): cautious optimism 2. ?(B): pessimism 3. x (C): optimism 4. x(D): pragmatism Question Number : 32 Question Id : 1741 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 According to the writer India should have performed better than the other Asian nations because.... Options : 1. x(A): it had adequate infrastructure 2. ?(B): it had better infrastructure 3. x(C): it had better politicians who could take the required decisions. 4. x(D): All of the above. Question Number : 33 Question Id : 1742 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 India was in better condition than the other Asian nations because.... Options : 1. x(A): it did not face the ravages of the Second World War 2. x(B): it had an English speaking populace and good business sense. 3. x(C): it had enough wealth through its exports. 4. ?(D): Both (a) and (b) above Question Number : 34 Question Id : 1743 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The major reason for India's poor performance is........ Options : 1. ?(A): economic isolationism 2. x(B): economic mismanagement 3. x(C): inefficient industry 4. x(D):All of these Question Number : 35 Question Id : 1744 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 One of the factors of the government's projectionist policy was...... Options : 1. x(A): encouragement of imports 2. x(B): discouragement of imports 3. x(C): encouragement of exports 4. ?(D): discouragement of exports Question Number : 36 Question Id : 1745 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The example of the Korean Cielo has been presented to highlight...... Options : 1. x(A): India's lack of stature in the international market. 2. ?(B): India's poor performance in the international market. 3. x(C): India's lack of creditability in the international market 4. x(D): India's disrepute in the international market. Question Number : 37 Question Id : 1746 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 According to the writer..... Options : 1. ?(A): India's politicians are myopic in their vision of the country's requirements. 2. x(B): India's politicians are busy lining their pockets. S. x(C): India's politicians are not conversant with the needs of the present scenario. 4. x(D): All of the above. Question Id : 1747 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (38 to 40) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Choose the option closest in meaning to the Capitalized word. Sub questions Question Number : 38 Question Id : 1748 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 GRANDIOSE Options : 1. ?(A): imposing 2. x(B): unpretentious 3. x(C): boring 4. x(D): lanky Question Number : 39 Question Id : 1749 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 SPRY Options : 1. x(A): doubtful 2. ?(B): nimble 3. x(C): prognosticate 4. x(D): leave Question Number : 40 Question Id : 1750 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 FUDGE Options : 1. x(A): to sweeten 2 x(B): smear 3. x(C): irritate 4. ?(D): falsify General Knowledge and Current Affairs Section Id : 39 Section Number : Section type : 2 Online Mandatory or Optional: Mandatory Number of Questions: 50 Number of Questions to be attempted: Section Marks: 50 50.0 Sub-Section Number: Sub-Section Id: Question Shuffling Allowed : 1 39 Yes Question Number : 41 Question Id : 1751 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Attukal Pongal festival, which is figured in Guinness Book of World Records is celebrated in .......... Options : 1. x(A): Tamil Nadu 2. ?(B): Kerala 3. x(C): Telangana. 4. x(D): Goa Question Number : 42 Question Id : 1752 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 In February 2015, which Indian Cricket legend has been inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame? Options : 1. x(A): Rahul Dravid 2. ?(B): Anil Kumble 3. x(C): Sachin Tendulkar 4. x(D): Mohammad Azharuddin Question Number : 43 Question Id : 1753 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following Acts formally introduced the principle of elections for the first time? Options : 1. (A): The Indian Councils Act, 1909 2. (B): Government of India Act, 1919 S. (C): The Government of India Act, 1935 4. (D): India's Independence Act, 1947 Question Number : 44 Question Id : 1754 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 IRCTC has recently launched a new service called 'RuPay prepaidcards' which will enable passengers to book their tickets, do shopping and pay service bills online. This service was launched in collaboration with which bank? Options : 1. ?(A): Union Bank of India 2. x(B): State Bank of India 3. x(C): ICICI Bank 4. x(D): Bharatiya Manila Bank Question Number : 45 Question Id : 1755 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Garuda Shakti III is the military exercise between India and which country? Options : 1. x(A): Nepal 2. x(B): Russia 3. ?(C): Indonesia 4. x(D): China Question Number : 46 Question Id : 1756 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Match List-I with List-II and select the best option using the code given below the lists: List-I (Organization /Centers) List II (Locations) A. High Altitude Warfare School 1. Chennai B. Indian Air force Training Center C. National Defense College D. Institute of National Integration 2. Gulmarg 3. New Delhi 4. Pune Options : 1. ?(A): A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 2. x(B): A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 3. x(C): A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 4. x(D): A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 Question Number : 47 Question Id : 1757 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Name India's Beyond Visual Range (BVR) Air-to-Air missile which was successfully test fired on 19 March 2015 from a Sukhoi-30 fighter aircraft? Options : 1. ?(A): Astra 2. x(B): K-100 3. x(C): Mitra 4. x(D): Tejas Question Number : 48 Question Id : 1758 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The I SRO has developed a 'Flood Hazard Atlas" by mapping flood prone and vulnerable areas in which state? Options : 1. x(A): Kerala 2. x(3): Maharashtra 3. ?(C): Assam 4. x(D): Tripura Question Number : 49 Question Id : 1759 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which South East Asian country has recently banned surrogacy service to end its flourishing rent-a-womb industry? Options : 1. x(A): Singapore 2. x(B): Laos 3. ?(C): Thailand 4. x(D): Vietnam Question Number : 50 Question Id : 1760 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following is the oldest share market in India? Options : 1. ?(A): Bombay 2. x(B): Madras 3. x(C): Calcutta 4. x(D): Delhi Question Number : 51 Question Id : 1761 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The name of new Andhra Pradesh Capital is likely to be .......... Options : 1. ?(A): Amaravathi 2. x(B): Badrachala 3. x(C): Krishna Nagar 4. x(D): Varshavathi Question Number : 52 Question Id : 1762 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The Ufa city, where annual BRIGS summit-2015 is scheduled to be held is in which country? Options : 1. x(A): China 2. ?(B): Russia 3. x(C): South Africa 4. x(D): Brazil Question Number : 53 Question Id : 1763 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The "Ease of Doing Business Index' is prepared and published by ........... Options : 1. x(A): World Trade Organisation 2. ?(B): World Bank Group 3. x(C): United Nations 4. x(D): European Union Question Number : 54 Question Id : 1764 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Prime Minister Modi has launched the 'Give It Up" campaign for voluntarily giving up .......... Options : 1. (A): Use of tobacco products 2. ?(B): LPG subsidy 3. x(C): Use of incandescent bulbs 4. x(D): Use of plastics Question Number : 55 Question Id : 1765 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which one of the following Railway Zones and the corresponding Headquarter pairs is not correctly matched? Options : 1. x(A): North Eastern Railway: Gorakhpur 2. ?(B): South Eastern Railway: Bhubaneswar 3. x(C): Eastern Railway: Kolkata 4. x(D): South East Central Railway : Bilaspur Question Number : 56 Question Id : 1766 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which among the following is the world's largest ecommerce company? Options : 1. ?(A): Amazon 2. x(B): eBay 3. x(C): Alibaba 4. x(D): Flipkart Question Number : 57 Question Id : 1767 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which committee was constituted governance of boards of banks in India? Options : 1. ?(A): P J Nayak Committee by RBI to review 2. x(B): H R Khan Committee 3. x(C): Harsh Vardhan Committee 4. x(D): K Subramanian Committee Question Number : 58 Question Id : 1768 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The recently announced Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana aims to boost ____? Options : 1. ?(A): Organic Farming 2. x(B): Drip Irrigation 3. x(C): Horticulture crops 4. x(D): Vegetable production Question Number : 59 Question Id : 1769 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The winner of 2015 Malaysian Grand Prix is ____? Options : 1. ?(A): Sebastian Vettel 2. x(B): Kimi Raikkonen 3. x(C): Lewis Hamilton 4. x(D): Jenson Button Question Number : 60 Question Id : 1770 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which one of the following is essentially a solo dance nowadays performed in group as well? Options : 1. x(A): Kuchipudi 2. x(B): Kathak 3. x(C): Manipuri 4. ?(D): Mohiniattam Question Number : 61 Question Id : 1771 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Who among the following was the author of Rajtarangini, commonly regarded as the first genuine history of India written by an Indian? Options : 1. x(A): Banbhatta 2. x(B): Ravikirti 3. x(C): Pushpananda 4. ?(D): Kalhana Question Number : 62 Question Id : 1772 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Name the golfer who won the Indian Open title on 22 February 2015. Options : 1. x(A): SSP Chowrasia 2. ?(B): Anirban Lahiri 3. x(C): Siddikur Rahman 4. x(D): Daniel Chopra Question Number : 63 Question Id : 1773 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which space agency has successfully launched the world's first all electric satellites in March, 2015? Options : 1. x(A): Russia Federal Space Agency 2. x(B): China National Space Administration 3. ?(C): SpaceX 4. x(D): European Space Agency Question Number : 64 Question Id : 1774 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Who among the following 18th century Indian rulers has been called 'Plato of his tribe'? Options : 1. x(A): Sawai Jai Singh 2. x(B): Badam Singh 3. ?(C): Suraj Mal 4. x(D): Guru Gobind Singh Question Number : 65 Question Id : 1775 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Bhalchandra Nemade who has been selected for the 50th Jnanpith Award for 2014, on 6 February 2015, is a famous writer in which language? Options : 1. ?(A): Marathi 2. x(B): Oriya. 3. x(C): Malayalam 4. x(D): Urdu Question Number : 66 Question Id : 1776 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A Snickometer is associated with which sports? Options : 1. x(A): Tennis 2. ?(B): Cricket 3. x(C): Hockey 4. x(D): Football Question Number : 67 Question Id : 1777 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following is incorrect option? Options : 1. x(A): Within the Arctic and Antarctic Circles there is at least one day in the year during which the sun does not set and at least one day on which it never rises. 2. x(B): At the North Pole there is darkness for half the year. 3. ?(C): At the summer solstice, the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn. 4. x(D): The sun shines vertically over the Equator twice in the year. Question Number : 68 Question Id : 1778 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is the correct sequence of the following movements in chronological order? 1. Civil Disobedience Movement 2. Khilafat Movement 3. Home Rule Movement 4. Quit India Movement Options : 1. x(A): 1, 2, 3, 4 2. x(B): 4, 3, 2, 1 3. ?(C): 3, 2, 1, 4 4. x(D): 2, 4, 1, 3 Question Number : 69 Question Id : 1779 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Recently, which country became the first member country to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to submit its action plan on Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC)? Options : 1. (A): India 2. ?(B): Switzerland 3. (C): Australia 4. (D): Singapore Question Number : 70 Question Id : 1780 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Lysosomes, which are known as suicide bags, are produced by which organelle? Options : 1. x(A): Mitochondria 2. ?(B): Golgi body 3. x(C): Ribosome 4. x(D): Peroxisome Question Number : 71 Question Id : 1781 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which is the single policy rate to unambiguously signal the stance of monetary policy as recently recommended by RBI? Options : 1. x(A): PLR 2. ?(B): Repo S. x(C): Bank 4. x(D): CLR Question Number : 72 Question Id : 1782 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which city has become India's first fully WiFi-enabled metro city on 5 February 2015? Options : 1. x(A): Mumbai 2. ?(B): Kolkata S. x(C): Chennai 4. x(D): Delhi Question Number : 73 Question Id : 1783 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Who among the following is India's first chief of Cyber Security? Options : 1. x(A): B. J. Srinath 2. ?(B): Gulshan Rai S. x(C): A. S. Kamble 4. x(D): Amardeep S. Chawla Question Number : 74 Question Id : 1784 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which one of the following is the online grievances monitoring portals launched by union government for Indians living abroad? Options : 1. ?(A): Madad 2. x(B): Sankalp 3. x(C): Mythri 4. x(D): Rakshan Question Number : 75 Question Id : 1785 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following is a Direct Tax? Options : 1. x(A): Excise duty 2. x(B): Sales tax 3. ?(C): Income tax 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 76 Question Id : 1786 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Indian Space Research Organisation was recently conferred 'Space Pioneer Award' by the National Space Society VS 5) of which country over the historic feat on successfully sending an orbit to Martian atmosphere in its very first attempt? Options : 1. x(A): France 2. x(B): European Union 3. x(C): China 4. ?(D): USA Question Number : 77 Question Id : 1787 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Recently in which country did Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurate the first of the eight Coastal Surveillance Radar Systems (CSRS) being set up by India? Options : 1. x(A): Mauritius 2. x(B): Maldives 3. x(C): Sri Lanka 4. ?(D): Seychelles Question Number : 78 Question Id : 1788 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Greece and Turkey are working resolve their dispute over sovereignty and related rights in the area of which sea? Options : 1. x(A): Black Sea 2. x(B): Sea of Marma 3. ?(C): Aegean Sea 4. x(D): Mediterranean Sea Question Number : 79 Question Id : 1789 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Name the Indian anniversary, industrialist Union on whose government 175th launched birth the commemorative stamp on 6 January 2015? Options : 1. x(A): D Birla 2. x(B): T V Sundaram Iyengar 3. x(C): Kasturbhai Lalbhai 4. ?(D): Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata Question Number : 80 Question Id : 1790 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Options : 1. x(A): Kunal Bahl & Rohit Bansal- Snapdeal 2. ?(B): Sachin Bansal & Binny Bansal- Red Bus 3. x(C): Deepinder goyal & Pankaj Chaddah - Zomato 4. x(D): Bhavish Aggarwal & Ankit Bhati - Ola Cab Question Number : 81 Question Id : 1791 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which state is to host the 36th National Games in 2016? Options : 1. x(A): Karnataka 2. ?(B): Goa 3. x(C): Tamil Nadu 4. x(D): Telangana Question Number : 82 Question Id : 1792 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Project Varsha, India's new naval base under construction is near which of the following cities? Options : 1. x(A): Kochi 2. x(B): Karwar 3. ?(C): Visakhapatnam 4. x(D): Chennai Question Number : 83 Question Id : 1793 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Young Indian shuttler K. Srikanth on 15 March 2015 won which of the following major badminton championship? Options : 1. x(A): China Grand Prix Gold 2. x(B): Australian Grand Prix Gold 3. ?(C): Swiss Grand Prix Gold 4. x(D): Indonesian Grand Prix Gold Question Number : 84 Question Id : 1794 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is the name given to the dedicated TV channel for farmers that was announced in the Union Budget for 201415 and Rs. 100 crore was set aside for its establishment? Options : 1. ?(A): Kisan 2. x(B): Farmers Show 3. x(C): Krishi Channel 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 85 Question Id : 1795 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The "Friends for Life" - an elephant conservation project has been launched by World Wide Fund for Nature India and ........... Options : 1. x(A): Aditya Birla Group 2. ?(B): Muthoot Group 3. x(C): Manapuram Group 4. x(D): Reliance Ltd Question Number : 86 Question Id : 1796 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The National Industrial Corridor (NI) that was proposed to be established in the Union Budget of 2014-15, will have its headquarters at which city? Options : 1. ?(A): Pune 2. x(B): Bhubaneswar 3. x(C): Bangalore 4. x(D): Hyderabad Question Number : 87 Question Id : 1797 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 President Pranab Mukherjee on 6 January 2015 signed the ordinance to amend Citizenship Act, 1955. Which of the statements in this regard is/are right? I. The ordinance exempts Person of Indian Origin (PIO) from appearing before the local police station on every visit II. It replaced the clause that says foreigners marrying Indians must continuously stay in the country for a period of six months before they get an Indian citizenship Options : 1. ?(A): I Only 2. x(B): II Only S. x(C): Both I and II 4. x(D): Neither I nor II Question Number : 88 Question Id : 1798 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Name the renowned Indian ecologist who has been chosen for the prestigious 2015 Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement on 23 March 2015? Options : 1. x(A): MS Swaminathan 2. x(B): Kasthuri Rangan 3. x(C): Jayaram Ramesh 4. ?(D): Madhav Gadgil Question Number : 89 Question Id : 1799 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 How much Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in country's defence sector was proposed in the Union Budget 2014-15 presented on 10 July 2014? Options : 1. x(A): 51% 2. ?(B): 49% 3. x(C): 29% 4. x(D): 10% Question Number : 90 Question Id : 1800 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The protein CA-125 (Cancer Antigen-125) biomarker for detection of which type of cancer? Options : 1. ?(A): Ovarian cancer 2. x(B): Bone cancer 3. x(C): Lung cancer 4. x(D): Oral cancer Elementary Mathematics (Numerical Ability) is used as Section Id : 40 Section Number : 3 Section type : Online Mandatory or Optional: Mandatory Number of Questions: 16 Number of Questions to be attempted: 16 Section Marks: 20.0 Sub-Section Number: Sub-Section Id: 1 40 Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Id : 1801 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (91 to 95) Question Label Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION: Answer the questions based on the information given in the following table. A, B, C, D, E denote companies and 2006, 2007, 2008, 2009 & 2010 denote years. Number of Units Manufactured (M) and Number of Units Sold (S) (in hundreds) by five different companies over the years. A B C D E M S M S M S M S M S 2006 2.8 1.3 3.3 2.2 2.6 1.7 3.0 2.2 1.9 1.4 2007 3.2 2.0 2.4 1.6 2.2 1.5 2.5 1.9 2.0 0.9 2.9 1.6 2.1 1.0 2.3 1.5 1.6 0.4 2.4 1.3 2.8 1.4 2.1 1.2 3.2 1.5 2.3 1.2 2.6 2.1 1.8 1.1 3.1 1.7 2008 1.9 1.1 2009 1.0 2.5 2010 2.5 2.6 Sub questions Question Number : 91 Question Id : 1802 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is the total number of units manufactured by Company C over all the years together? Options : 1. x(A): 1420 2. x(B): 1030 3. ?(C): 1230 4. x(D): 1320 Question Number : 92 Question Id : 1803 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is the approximate percent increase in the number of units sold by Company E in the year 2007 from the previous year? Options : 1. x(A): 17 2. x(B): 36 S. x(C): 27 4. ?(D): 21 Question Number : 93 Question Id : 1804 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The number of units sold by Company D in the year 2006 is what percent of the number of units manufactured by it in that year? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) Options : 1. x(A): 52.63 2. x(B): 61.57 3. x(C): 85.15 4. ?(D): 73.33 Question Number : 94 Question Id : 1805 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is the respective ratio of total number of units manufactured by Company A and B together in the year 2009 to those sold by them in the same year? Options : 1. ?(A): 2: 01 2. x(B): 3:02 3. x(C): 5:02 4. x(D): None of the Above Question Number : 95 Question Id : 1806 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is the average number of units sold by Company D over all the years together? Options : 1. x(A): 166. 2 ?(B): 158 3 x(C): 136 4. x(D): 147 Question Number : 96 Question Id : 1807 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is the value of (x) in the following equation? x0.4/16 = 32/ x2.6 Options : 1. ?(A): 8 2. x(B): 9 3 x(C): 6 4. x(D): 7 Question Number : 97 Question Id : 1808 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The simplified value of [(0.111)3 + (0.222) 3- {0.333) 3+ (0333)2 x (0.222)]3 is: Options : 1. x(A.): 0.999 2. x(B): 0.111 3. ?(C): 0 4. x(D): 0.888 Question Number : 98 Question Id : 1809 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 When 21/2 is added to a number and the sum is multiplied by 41/2. and then 3 is added to the product and then the sum is divided by 1 1/5, the quotient becomes 25. What is that number? Options : 1. x (A): 21/2 2. ?(B): 3 1/2 3 x(C): 41/2 4 x(D):51/2 Question Number : 99 Question Id : 1810 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 If x = (163+ 173+ 183+ 193), then x divided by 70 leaves a remainder of,-- 1. ?(A): 0 2 x(B): 1 3. x(C): 69 4. x(D): 35 Question Number : 100 Question Id : 1811 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A man has 9 friends: 4 boys and 5 girls. In how many ways can he invite them, if there have to be exactly 3 girls in the invitees? Options : 1. x(A): 320 2. ?(B): 160 3. x(C): 80 4. x(D): 200 Question Number : 101 Question Id : 1812 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A group of 630 children is arranged in rows for a group photograph session. Each row contains three fewer children than the row in front of it. What number of rows is not possible? Options : 1. x(A): 3 2. x(B): 4 S. x(C): 5 4. ?(D): 6 Question Number : 102 Question Id : 1813 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A die is rolled twice. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the two faces is 5? Options : 1. x(A): 3/13 2. x(B): 4/13 S. x(C): 6/13 4. ?(D): 1/9 Question Number : 103 Question Id : 1814 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Two trains, one from Howrah to Patna and other from Patna to Howrah, start simultaneously. After they meet, the trains reach their destinations after 9 hours and 16 hours respectively. The ratio of their speed is... Options : 1. x(A): 2:03 2. ?(B): 4:03 3. x(C): 6:07 4. x(D): 9:06 Question Number : 104 Question Id : 1815 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes slow at noon on Monday and is 4 minute 48 second fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct? Options: 1. x(A): 2 p.m. on Tuesday 2. ?(B): 2 p.m. on Wednesday 3. x(C): 3 p.m. on Thursday 4. x(D): 1 p.m. on Friday Question Number : 105 Question Id : 1816 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A speaks truth in 75% cases and B in 80% of the cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other, narrating the same incident? Options : 1. (A): 5% 2. (B): 15% 3. ?(C): 35% 4. (D): 45% Question Number : 106 Question Id : 1817 Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The sum of all the natural numbers from 200 to 600 (both inclusive) which are neither divisible by 8 nor by 12 is: Options : 1. (A): 1,23,968 2. (B): 1,33,068 3. ?(C): 1,33,268 4. (D): 1,87,332 Question Number : 107 Question Id : 1818 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 In a tournament, there are n teams T1, T2,.......Tn, with n > 5. Each team consists of k players, k > 3. The following pairs of teams have one player in common T1 and T2, T2 and T3, ....., Tn-1.and Tn, and Tn and T1. No other pair of teams has any player in common. How many players are participating in the tournament, considering all the n teams together? Options : 1. x(A): k(n - 1) 2. x(B): n(k- 2) 3 x(C): k(n - 2) 4. ?(D): n(k - 1) Question Number : 108 Question Id : 1819 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 If n2 = 12345678987654321, what is n? Options : 1 x(A): 12344321 2. x(B): 1235789 3. ?(C): 111111111 4 x(D): 11111111 Question Number : 109 Question Id : 1820 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Along a road lie an odd number of stones placed at intervals of 10m. These stones have to be assembled around the middle stone. A person can carry only one stone at a time. A man carried out the job starting with the stone in the middle, carrying stories in succession, thereby covering a distance of 4.8 km. Then, the number of stones is: Options : 1. x(A): 35 2 x(B): 15 3. ?(C): 31 4. x(D): 29 Question Number : 110 Question Id : 1821 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What are the last two digits of 72008? Options : 1. ?(A): 01 2 x(B): 21 3. x(C): 61 4. x(D): 71 Legal Aptitude Section Id : 41 Section Number : Section type : 4 Online Mandatory or Optional: Mandatory Number of Questions: 22 Number of Questions to be attempted: Section Marks: 50.0 Sub-Section Number: Sub-Section Id: Question Shuffling Allowed : 22 1 41 Yes Question Id : 1822 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (111 to 125) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : The question consist of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given facts carefully and select the best option. Sub questions Question Number : 111 Question Id : 1823 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent moves that property, such taking is said to commit theft. FACT: RAMU cuts down a tree on RINKU'S ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of RINKU'S possession without RINKU'S consent. A could not take the tree away. Options : 1. ?(A): RAMU can be prosecuted for theft 2. x(B): RAMU cannot be prosecuted for theft 3. x(C): RAMU can be prosecuted for attempt to theft 4. x(D): RAMU has neither committed theft nor attempt to commit theft Question Number : 112 Question Id : 1824 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: injuria sine damnum i.e. injury without damage. FACT: SONU, who was a returning officer at a polling booth, wrongly refused to register a duly tendered vote of MONU, though he was a qualified voter. The candidate, whom MONU sought to vote, was declared elected. Options : 1. x(A): MONU can sue SONU on the ground that he was denied to cast vote, which is a fundamental right. 2. ?(B): MONU can sue SONU on the ground that he was denied to cast vote, which is a legal right. 3. x(C): MONU cannot sue SONU because there is no injury or damage cause to MONU. 4. x(D): MONU cannot sue SONU because to whom he sought to vote was declared elected. Question Number : 113 Question Id : 1825 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests. FACT: Mr. X who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he is of unsound mind. Y came to know about this fact afterwards and now wants to file a suit against Mr. X. Options : 1. x(A): Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he entered into contract. 2. x(B): Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound mind at the time of contract. 3. ?(C): Mr. X can enter into a contract but the burden is on Mr. X to prove that he was of unsound mind at the time of contract. 4. x(D): None of the above. Question Number : 114 Question Id : 1826 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal. FACT: "Ramanuj telegrammed to the Shyamsunder, writing: "will you sell me your Rolls Royce CAR? Telegram the lowest cash price." Shyamsunder replied, too by telegram: 'Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 lacs.' Ramanuj immediately sends his consent through telegram stating: 'I agree to buy the CAR for Rs. 20 laks asked by you.' Now Shyamsunder refused to sell the CAR. Options : 1. x(A): He cannot refuse to sell the CAR because the contract has already been made. 2. ?(B): He can refuse to sell the CAR because it was only invitation to offer and not the real offer. 3. x(C): It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent. 4. x(D): None of the above. Question Number : 115 Question Id : 1827 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: A master is liable for the acts committed by his servant in the course of employment. FACT: Sanjay is a driver working in Brookebond and Co. One day, the Manager asked him to drop a customer at the airport and get back at the earliest. On his way back from the airport, he happened to see his fiance Ruhina waiting for a bus to go home. He offered to drop her at home, which happened to be close to his office. She got into the car and soon thereafter; the car somersaulted due to the negligence of Sanjay. Ruhina was thrown out of the car and suffered multiple injuries. She seeks compensation from Brookebond and Co. Options : 1. ?(A): Brookebond and Co., shall be liable, because Sanjay was in the course of employment at the time of accident 2. x (B): Brookebond and Co., shall not be liable, Sanjay was not in the course of employment when he took Ruhina inside the car. 3. x(C): Ruhina got into the car at her own risk, and therefore, she cannot sue anybody. 4. x(D): None of the above. Question Number : 116 Question Id : 1828 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: Nuisance as a tort (civil wrong) means an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. FACT: During the scarcity of onions, long queues were made outside the defendant's shop who having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 Kg. of onion per ration card. The queues extended on to the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighboring shops. The neighboring shopkeepers brought an action for nuisance against the defendant. Options : 1. ?(A): The defendant is liable for nuisance 2. x(B): The defendant was not liable for nuisance S. x(C): The defendant was liable under the principle of strict liability 4. x(D): The plaintiff's suit should be decreed in his favour Question Number : 117 Question Id : 1829 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law. FACT: A takes his son B who is three years old, for a bath to the well. He throws his son inside the well so that he could have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also jumped in the well to take a bath and take his son out of the well. Both were rescued by the villagers but his son was found dead. Options : 1. x(A): A has committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder 2. x(B): A has committed murder 3. ?(C): A has done no offence as he can plead the defence of unsoundness of mind 4. x(D): A's family should be responsible for this incident to let him to take child to the well Question Number : 118 Question Id : 1830 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: ignorantia juris non excusat and ingnorantia facit excusat. FACT: George was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane landed at the airport at Bombay on 28th Nov. 1962 it was found on search that George carried 34 legs of gold bars in person and that he had not declared it in the 'Manifest for transit'. On 26th Nov. 1962 Government of India issued a notification and modified its earlier exemption and now it is necessary that, the gold must be declared in the "Manifest" of the aircraft. Options : 1. x(A): George cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification issued only two days ago. 2. x(B): George cannot be prosecuted because it is mistake of fact which is excusable. S. ?(C): George's will be prosecuted because mistake of law is not excusable. 4. x(D): George liability would depend on the discretion of the court Question Number : 119 Question Id : 1831 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid an act or omission which he can foresee would injure his neighbor. The neighbor for this purpose, is any person whom he should have in his mind as likely to be affected by his act. FACT: Krishnan, while driving a car at high speed in a crowded road, knocked down a cyclist. The cyclist died on the spot with a lot of blood spilling around, Lakshmi, a pregnant woman passing by, suffered from a nervous shock, leading to abortion. Lakshmi filed a suit against Krishnan claiming damages. Options : 1. x(A): Krishna will be liable, because he owed a duty of reasonable care to everybody on the road including Lakshmi 2. ?(B): Krishna will not be liable, because he could not have foreseen Lakshmi suffering from nervous shock as a result of his act. 3. x(C): Krishna will be liable to Lakshmi because he failed to drive carefully 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 120 Question Id : 1832 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: Preparation is not an offence except the preparation of some special offences. FACT: Ramesh keeps poisoned halua in his house, wishing to kill Binoy whom he invited to a party and to whom he wishes to give it. Unknown to Ramesh, his only son takes the halua and dies. In this case Options : 1. x(A): Ramesh is liable for the murder. 2. ?(B): He is not liable for murder since it is a preparation alone. 3. x(C): He is liable for culpable homicide 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 121 Question Id : 1833 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void. FACT: A horse was bought for a certain price coupled with a promise to give Rs. 500 more if the horse proved lucky. Options : 1. x(A): This is a valid agreement. 2. ?(B): This agreement is void for uncertainty because it is very difficult to determine what luck, bad or good, the horse had brought to the buyer. 3. x(C): The agreement is partially valid and partially void. 4. x(D): None of the above. Question Number : 122 Question Id : 1834 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech. FACT: A sells, by auction, to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about the horse's unsoundness. Options : 1. x(A): A can be held liable for fraud 2. x(B): A can be held liable for misrepresentation 3. ?(C): A cannot be held liable, because he did not say anything positive about the soundness of horse. 4. x(D): A cannot be held liable because it is the buyer who must be aware of the things. Question Number : 123 Question Id : 1835 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: Any direct physical interference with the goods in somebody's possession without lawful justification is called trespass to goods. FACT: A purchased a car from a person who had no title to it and had sent it to a garage for repair. X, believing, wrongly, that the car was his, removed it from the garage. Options : 1. ?(A): X can be held responsible for trespass to goods. 2. x(B): X cannot be held responsible for trespass to good as he was under a wrong belief. 3. x(C): X has not committed any wrong. 4. x(D): None of the above. Question Number : 124 Question Id : 1836 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: "Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation." FACT: Jeevan and Pavan were neighbours in a residential locality. Pavan started a typing class in a part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jeevan who could not put up with any kind of continuous noise. He filed a suit against Pavan. Options : 1. x(A): Pavan is liable, because he should not have started typing class in his house 2. x(B): Pavan is liable, because as a neighbour, he should have realised Jeevan's delicate nature 3. x(C): Pavan is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other than Jeevan 4. ?(D): None of the above. Question Number : 125 Question Id : 1837 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 PRINCIPLE: Doctrine of Double Jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence twice. FACT: Maqbool brought some gold into India without making any declaration to Custom department on the airport. The custom authorities confiscated the gold under the Sea Customs Act. Maqbool was later charged for having committed an offence under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act. Options : 1. x(A): He cannot be prosecuted because it would amount to double jeopardy. 2. ?V (B): He can be prosecuted because confiscation of good by custom authorities does not amount to prosecution by the Court. 3. x(C): Maqbool ought to have known that he can be stopped by the custom authorities. 4. x(D): None of the above. Question Id : 1838 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (126 to 135) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : The question consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option. Sub questions Question Number : 126 Question Id : 1839 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Assertion: Custom per se is law, independent of prior recognition by the sovereign or the judge. Reason: Custom is source of law but by itself is not law. Options : 1. x(A): Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A 2. x(B): Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A 3. x(C): A is true but R is false. 4. ?(D): A is false but R is true. Question Number : 127 Question Id : 1840 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Assertion: Idol is a person who can hold property. Reason: Only human being can be called person not the lifeless things. Options : 1. x(A): Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A 2. x(B): Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A 3. ?(C): A is true but R is false. 4. x(D): A is false but R is true. Question Number : 128 Question Id : 1841 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Assertion: Laws are means of achieving an end namely social control. Reason: The ultimate end of law is to secure greatest happiness to greatest number. Options : 1. x(A): Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A 2. ?(B): Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A 3. x(C): A is true but R is false. 4. x(D): A is false but R is true. Question Number : 129 Question Id : 1842 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Assertion: Every person should have the freedom of speech and expression. Reason: If a person is stopped from speaking then mankind will lose the truth. Options : 1. ?(A): Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A 2. x(B): Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A 3. x(C): A is true but R is false. 4. x(D): A is false but R is true. Question Number : 130 Question Id : 1843 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Assertion: Attempt to commit an offence though does not result in any harm, should also be punished. Reason: A person who tries to cause a prohibited harm and fails, is, in terms of moral culpability, not materially different from the person who tries and succeeds. Options : 1. ?(A): Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A 2. x(B): Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A 3. x(C): A is true but R is false. 4. x(D): A is false but R is true. Question Number : 131 Question Id : 1844 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Assertion: In India, every state has a High Court in its territory. Reason: The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state. Options : 1. x(A): Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A 2. x(B): Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A 3. x(C): A is true but R is false. 4. ?(D): A is false but R is true. Question Number : 132 Question Id : 1845 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Assertion: The Council of Ministers at the centre is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Reason: The members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to be ministers of the Union Government. Options : 1. x(A): Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A 2. x(B): Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A 3. x(C): A is true but R is false. 4. ?(D): A is false but R is true. Question Number : 133 Question Id : 1846 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Assertion: The reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require Constitutional Amendment. Reason: Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional Amendment. Options : 1. x(A): Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A 2. x(B): Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A 3. x(C): A is true but R is false. 4. ?(D): A is false but R is true. Question Number : 134 Question Id : 1847 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Assertion: We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Democratic Republic. Reason: A republic will ensure we have a head of state that is democratically elected and accountable to voters. As a result the head of state will be a more effective constitutional safeguard. Options : 1. ?(A): Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A 2. x(B): Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A 3. x(C): A is true but R is false. 4. x(D): A is false but R is true. Question Number : 135 Question Id : 1848 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Assertion: Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January every year in the country. Reason: The Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950. Options : 1. ?(A): Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A 2. x(B): Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A 3. x(C): A is true but R is false. 4. x(D): A is false but R is true. Question Id : 1849 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (136 to 138) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Read the definition and elements of the attempt, apply them on the given fact situations and answer the question: Definition of Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that "there is no doubt that there is difference between preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt, but if the actual transaction has commenced which would have ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is clearly an attempt to commit the crime." 1. Fault element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and 2. Conduct Element: does any act towards its commission and has crossed the stage of preparation. This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the commission that it fails in object because of facts not known to him or because of circumstances beyond his control. Sub questions Question Number : 136 Question Id : 1850 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 'RANI' ran to a well stating that she would jump into it, and she started running towards the well but she was caught before she could reach it. Options : 1. ?(A): She is not guilty of attempt to commit suicide because she might have changed her mind before jumping into the well. 2. x(B): She is guilty of attempt to commit suicide 3. x(C): Right to life includes rights right to die hence a person should not be held responsible for attempt to commit suicide. 4. x(D): None of the above. Question Number : 137 Question Id : 1851 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 'SINY' with an intention to pick-pocket puts his hand into MINU's pocket. MINU had a loaded pistol in his pocket. The thief touches the pistol and trigger goes on, whereby MINU is shot dead. Options : 1. ?(A): SINY will be liable only for attempting to pick-pocket and not for killing because she cannot be treated differently from all other pick-pockets who steal under exactly similar circumstances and same intention, with no risk of causing death and with no greater care to avoid it. 2. x(B): SINY will be liable for attempting to murder 3. x(C): SINY will be liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder as his intention was definitely not to kill. 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 138 Question Id : 1852 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 'JAM' denied food to his wife JANE for several days by keeping her confined in a room with an intention to accelerate her death. JANE ultimately managed to escape. Options : 1. ?(A): JAM is guilty for attempt to murder his wife. 2. x(B): JAM is not guilty for attempt to murder his wife and he was only doing preparation. 3. x(C): JAM is not guilty for attempt to murder his wife as she always had option to escape. 4. x(D): None of the above. Question Id : 1853 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (139 to 142) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Fill in the blanks: Choose the pair of words which complete the sentence to make logical sense. Sub questions Question Number : 139 Question Id : 1854 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The NDA led Government notified the ....................and the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, thus ending the over two-decade-old ...................... of appointing judges of Supreme Court and high courts. Under the new law, a six-member panel headed by ..................... will select judges of the apex court and state high courts. Options : 1. ?(A): 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegium system, the Chief Justice of India 2. x(B): 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegium system, the Union Law Minister 3. x(C): 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegium system, the Prime Minister 4. x(D): 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, cabinet system, the Prime Minister Question Number : 140 Question Id : 1855 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The ................Legislative Assembly on 31st March 2015 passed a controversial Anti-Terrorism Law. Earlier, the passed bill was rejected two times by the then ................ in 2004 and 2008. Options : 1. x(A): Bihar, Presidents 2. x(B): Madhya Pradesh, Governors 3. ?(C): Gujarat, Presidents 4. x(D): Maharashtra, Governors Question Number : 141 Question Id : 1856 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The Union Government on the recommendation of the ............under the chairmanship of ................. has decided to decriminalize Section ............... of the Indian Penal Code. Options : 1. ?(A): 20th Law Commission, Justice A.P. Shah & 309 2. x(B): 20th Law Commission, Justice M.P. Shah & 307 3. x(C): Supreme Court, Justice H.L. Dattu & Section 309 4. x(D): Planning Commission, Law Minister, section 309 Question Number : 142 Question Id : 1857 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A bench headed by ................ quashed allocation of 214 ............as .................... Options : 1. x(A): Justice H L Dattu, coal blocks, illegal and arbitrary 2. ?(B): Justice R. M. Lodha, coal blocks, illegal and arbitrary 3. x(C): Justice T. S. Thakur, licenses, illegal and arbitrary 4. x(D): None of the above. Question Number : 143 Question Id : 1858 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Choose the best option for the following statement: No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since: 1. It will be violative of the right to freedom of speech and expression. 2. It will be violative of the right to freedom of conscience and practice 8z propagation of religion. 3. There is no legal provision obliging anyone to sing the National Anthem. Options : 1. x(A): 1 and 2 are correct 2. x(B): 2 and 3 are correct 3. ?(C): 1, 2 and 3 are correct 4. x(D): None is correct Question Number : 144 Question Id : 1859 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Five years' experience is a must to be able to practice as an advocate in the Supreme Court of India. This rule was prescribed by the ......... Options : 1. ?(A): Bar Council of India 2. x(B): Supreme Court of India 3. x(C): High Court of Delhi 4. x(D): Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India Question Number : 145 Question Id : 1860 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Union Government recently approved 33 per cent Reservation for Women in: Options : 1. ?(A): Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all non-gazetted Police Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi. 2. x(B): Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted Police Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi. 3. x(C): Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted and non-gazetted Police Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi. 4. x(D): Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted and non-gazetted Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi. Question Number : 146 Question Id : 1861 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 As per Indian Protocol, who among the followings ranks highest in the order of precedence? Options : 1. x(A): Deputy Prime Minister 2. x(B): Former President 3. ?(C): Governor of a State within his State 4. x(D): Speaker of Lok Sabha Question Number : 147 Question Id : 1862 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Consider the following statements and choose the best option: 1. The Chairman of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the Chief Justice of India. 2. Chief Justice Mr. Justice H. L Dattu is the present Chairman of NALSA. 3. The Chairman of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the senior most judge (after CJI) of the Supreme Court of India. 4. Hon'ble Mr. Justice T. S. Thakur is the present Chairman of NALSA. Options : 1. x(A): 1 and 2 are correct 2. x(B): 2 and 3 are correct 3. ?(C): 3 and 4 are correct 4. x(D): None is correct Question Number : 148 Question Id : 1863 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 India and Britain recently signed an "extradition treaty". Extradition means Options : 1. x(A): Exports without double taxation 2. x(B): Order of Indian courts will apply to Indians living in the U.K. 3. ?(C): India and the U,K. will deport criminals on reciprocal basis to each other 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 149 Question Id : 1864 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 What is a 'moot'? Options : 1. x(A): A basic point of law 2. x(B): A basic fact of case 3. ?(C): Mock court for practice by students in general 4. x(D): Another name for magistrate's court Question Number : 150 Question Id : 1865 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The temporary release of a convicted prisoner from jail for a fixed period is called Options : 1. x(A): Bail 2. ?(B): Parole 3. x(C): Acquittal 4. x(D): Discharge Question Number : 151 Question Id : 1866 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The Railway authorities allowed a train to be overcrowded. In consequence, a legitimate passenger, Mr. X got his pocket picked. Choose appropriate answerOptions : 1. x(A): Mr. X can sue the railway authorities for the loss suffered. 2. x(B): Mr. X cannot sue because he had given his consent to travel in a over-crowded train. 3. ?(C): Mr. X cannot sue the railway authorities because there was no infringement of legal right and mere fact that the loss was caused does not give rise to a cause of action. 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 152 Question Id : 1867 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Choose the best option for the following statement: The distinction between fraud and misrepresentation: 1. Fraud is more or less intentional wrong, whereas misrepresentation may be quite innocent. 2. In addition to rendering the contract voidable, is a cause of action in tort for damages. Simple misrepresentation is not a tort but a person who rightfully rescinds compensation for a any contract damages is entitled which he to has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract. 3. A person complaining of misrepresentation can be met with the defence that he had the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence". But excepting fraud by silence in other cases of fraud it is no defence that the plaintiff had the means of discovering the truth by ordinary diligence". 4. None of the above. Options : 1. x(A): 1 is correct. 2. x(B): 1 & 2 are correct. 3. ?(C): 1, 2 & 3 are correct. 4. x(D): Only 4 is correct. Question Number : 153 Question Id : 1868 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 In a recent case a Supreme Court bench comprising of Justice Dipak Misra and Justice Prafulla C Pant held that the amount of maintenance to be awarded under Section 125 of CrPC cannot be restricted for the iddat period (three months) only as the inherent and fundamental principle behind Section 125. Also, it said that an order under Section 125 CrPC can be passed if a person, despite having sufficient means, neglects or refuses to maintain the wife. Options : 1. ?(A): Shamima Farooqui v. Shahid Khan 2. x(B): Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum 3. x(C): Hamida Bano v. Abdul Rasheed 4. x(D): Abdul Kadir v. Salima Question Number : 154 Question Id : 1869 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Select the correct statements on Social Justice Bench constituted on social issue 1. Constituted by Supreme Court on 3 December 2014 2. Started operation on 12 December 2014 3. The brainchild of Chief Justice of India H L Dattu 4. Two-judge bench to be headed by Justice Madan B Lokur 5. The other member is Justice U U Lalit Options : 1. x(A): 1, 2 & 5 are correct 2. x(B): 1, 2 & 3 are correct 3. x(C): 1, 3 & 4 are correct 4. ?(D): All are correct Question Number : 155 Question Id : 1870 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Select the correct statements about 14 Finance Commission which submitted its report to President 1. It covers the period between 1 April 2015 and 31 March 2020. 2. The Commission headed by former RBI Governor Y V Reddy. 3. Provides for devolution of tax receipts from the Centre to the States. 4. Article 280 of Constitution provides for appointment of Finance Commission. 5. 1st and 13th Finance Commission was headed by K C Neogy & Dr Vijay Kelkar respectively. Options : 1. x(A): 1, 3 & 5 are correct 2. x(B): 1, 2 & 3 are correct 3. x(C): 1, 5 & 4 are correct 4. ?(D): All are correct Question Number : 156 Question Id : 1871 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Who administers oath of office to the Governor of a State? Options : 1. x(A): President of India 2. ?(B): Chief Justice of High Court of the respective state S. x(C): Chief Justice of India 4. x(D): Speaker of State Assembly Question Number : 157 Question Id : 1872 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Governor of a State can make Laws during recess of State Legislative Assembly through...... Options : 1. x(A): Act 2. x(B): Bills S. x(C): Notification 4. ?(D): Ordinance Question Number : 158 Question Id : 1873 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Who called Indian Constitution as Quasi--Federal? Options : 1. x(A): Austin 2. ?(B): K. C. Wheare 3. x(C): H. M. Servai 4. x(D): Jennings Question Number : 159 Question Id : 1874 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 President of India exercises his powers .......... Options : 1. ?(A): Either directly or through officers subordinate to him 2. x(B): Through ministers 3. x(C): Through Prime Minister 4. x(D): Through Cabinet Question Number : 160 Question Id : 1875 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Vote on accounts is meant for .......... Options : 1. x(A): Vote on the report of CA.G 2. x(B): To meet unforseen expenditure 3. ?(C): Appropriating funds pending passing of budget 4. x(D): Budget Logical Reasoning Section Id : 42 Section Number : Section type : 5 Online Mandatory or Optional: Mandatory Number of Questions: 15 Number of Questions to be attempted: Section Marks: 15 40.0 Sub-Section Number: Sub-Section Id: Question Shuffling Allowed : 1 42 Yes Question Id : 1876 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (161 to 168) Question Label Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : W, X, Y, and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. E00, and a record player. Z originally had a cycle and a walkman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y. Z get a camera costing Rs. 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z's cycle. Z gave his walkman to W. Sub questions Question Number : 161 Question Id : 1877 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Total cost of materials Z had at the beginning was : Options : 1. x(A): Rs. 1500 2. ?(B): Rs. 1700 3. x(C): Rs. 1000 4. x(D): Rs. 2000 Question Number : 162 Question Id : 1878 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 At the beginning who had the costliest items : Options : 1. ?(A): W 2. x(B): X 3. x(C): Y 4. x(D): Z Question Number : 163 Question Id : 1879 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Who did not have a cricket bat after the exchange of items was over? Options : 1. x(A): W 2. ?(B): X 3. x(C): Y 4. x(D): Z Question Number : 164 Question Id : 1880 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Who became the gainer by highest amount through exchange? Options : 1. x(A): W 2. x(B): X 3. x(C): Y 4. ?(D): Z Question Number : 165 Question Id : 1881 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The person incurring the highest amount of financial loss through exchange lost an amount of: Options : 1. x(A): Rs. 600 2. x(B): Rs. 1000 3. ?(C): None 4. x(D): Rs. 500 Question Number : 166 Question Id : 1882 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The amount of price of all the things remaining with the four persons lie between: Options : 1. x(A): Rs. 800-Rs. 900 2. x(B): Rs. 10000-12000 3. x(C): Rs. 9000-Rs. 10000 4. ?(D): Rs. 10000-Rs. 11000 Question Number : 167 Question Id : 1883 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Even after exchanges, an item of highest value remained in possession of: Options : 1. ?(A): W 2. x(B): X 3. x(C): Y 4. x(D): Z Question Number : 168 Question Id : 1884 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Among the things exchanged, which one faced the highest exchange value in percentage term. Options : 1. x(A): Cricket Eat 2. x(B): Record Player 3. x(C): Camera 4. ?(D): Cycle Question Id : 1885 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (169 to 173) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Read the following information and choose the best option. Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially, the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his /her "sources'. I f the person has two sources, then he /she compares the answer-keys obtained for both sources. I f the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he /she copies the source's answer into his /her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his /her answer key. The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. This data represents question numbers. Na Wrong Blank me Answer(s) Answer(s A B C D E F G H I 46 96 27,56 17 46,90 14,46 25 46,92 27 ) --46,90,25 17,46,90 ------92,90 ----17,26,90 Sub questions Question Number : 169 Question Id : 1886 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which one of the following must have two sources? Options : 1. x(A): A 2. ?(B): B 3. x(C): C 4. x(D): D Question Number : 170 Question Id : 1887 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer keys before C could make his answer key? Options : 1. x(A): 2 2. x(B): 3 3. ?(C): 4 4. x(D): 5 Question Number : 171 Question Id : 1888 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Both G and H were sources to .... Options : 1. x(A): F 2. x(B): B 3. x(C): A 4. ?(D): None of the above Question Number : 172 Question Id : 1889 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following statement is true? Options : 1. x(A): introduced the wrong answer to question 27 2. x(B): E introduced the wrong answer to question 46 3. ?(C): F introduced the wrong answer to question 14 4. x(D): H introduced the wrong answer to question 46 Question Number : 173 Question Id : 1890 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following two groups of people has identical sources? (I) A, D and G (II) E and H Options : 1. x(A): Only (I) 2. x(B): Only (II) 3. x(C): Neither (I) nor (II) 4. ?(D): Both (I) and (II) Question Id : 1891 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (174 to 178) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the following question, a group of numerals is given followed by four groups of symbol /letter combinations lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). Numerals are to be coded as per the codes and conditions. You have to find out which of the combinations (A), (B), (C) and (D) is correct and indicate your answer accordingly. Numerals: Letter/symbol code: 3 * 5 B 7 E 4 A 2 @ 6 F 3 K 1 % 0 R 9 M Following conditions apply: 1. If the first digit as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as 'X'. 2. If the first digit as well as the last digit is even, both are to be coded as '$'. 3. If the last digit is '0', it is to be coded as #. Sub questions Question Number : 174 Question Id : 1892 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Find out the combination for : 487692 Options : 1. x(A): $KEFM@ 2. x(B): AKEFM@ 3. x(C): AKFEM@ 4. ?(D): $KEFM$ Question Number : 175 Question Id : 1893 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Find out the combination for : 713540 Options : 1. x(A): X%*BA# 2. ?(B): E%*BA# 3. x(C): E%BAR 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 176 Question Id : 1894 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Find out the combination for : 765082 Options : 1. x(A): EFB#K@ 2. x(B): XFBRK@ 3. ?(C): EFBRK@ 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 177 Question Id : 1895 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Find out the combination for : 364819 Options : 1. x(A): *FAK%X 2. x(B): XFAK&M 3. x(C): *FAK%M 4. ?(D): None of the above Question Number : 178 Question Id : 1896 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Find out the combination for : 546839 Options : 1. ?(A): XAFK*X 2. x(B): XAFK*M 3. x(C): BAFK*X 4. x(D): None of the above Question Id : 1897 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (179 to 181) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : From the alternatives given below. Choose the best option that correctly classifies the four sentences as a : F: Fact: I f it relates to a known matter of direct observation, or an existing reality or something known to be true. J: Judgment: If it is an opinion or estimate or anticipation of common sense or intention. I: Inference: if it is a logical conclusion or deduction about something based on the knowledge of facts. Sub questions Question Number : 179 Question Id : 1898 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. Everyday social life is impossible without interpersonal relationships. B. The root of many misunderstandings has been cited in poor relations among individuals. C. Assuming the above to be true, social life will be much better if people understand the importance of good interpersonal relations. D. A study reveals that interpersonal relations and hence life in general can be improved with a little effort on the part of individuals. Options : 1. x(A): FJIJ 2. ?(B): JFIF 3. x(C): FIFJ 4. x(D): IFFJ Question Number : 180 Question Id : 1899 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. The Cabinet minister definitely took the wrong step in giving the government contract. B. Under the circumstances, he had many other alternatives. C. The Prime Minister is embarrassed due to the minister's decision. D. If he has put the government in jeopardy, the minister must resign. Options : 1. ?(A): JFFI 2. x(B): IFJI 3. x(C): FFJI 4. x(D): IFIJ Question Number : 181 Question Id : 1900 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. I f democracy is to survive, the people must develop a sense of consumerism. B. Consumerism has helped improve the quality of goods in certain countries. C. The protected environment in our country is helping the local manufacturers. D. The quality of goods suffers if the manufacturers take undue advantage of this. Options : 1. x(A): IJFJ 2. ?(B): JFJI 3. x(C): IJJF 4. x(D): IFJJ Question Id : 1901 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (182 to 184) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the best option which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements. Sub questions Question Number : 182 Question Id : 1902 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. Traffic congestion increases carbon monoxide in the environment. B. Increase in carbon monoxide is hazardous to wealth. C. Traffic congestion is hazardous to health. D. Some traffic congestion does not cause increase carbon monoxide. E. Some traffic congestion is not hazardous to health Options : 1. ?(A): CBA 2. x(B): BIDE 3. x(C): CDE 4. x(D): BAC For the above question, User had specified 'full' during keys upload. Question Number : 183 Question Id : 1903 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. MBAs are in great demand. B. Samrat and Akshita are in great demand. C. Samrat is in great demand. D. Akshita is in great demand. E. Samrat and Akshita are MBAs Options : 1. x(A): ABE 2. x(B): ECD 3. ?(C): AEB 4. x(D): EBA Question Number : 184 Question Id : 1904 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 A. All software companies employ knowledge workers. B. Infotech employees are knowledge workers. C. Infotech is a software company. D. Some software companies employ knowledge workers. E. Infotech employs only knowledge workers. Options : 1. x(A): ABC 2. ?(B): ACB 3. x(C): CDB 4. x(D): ACE Question Id : 1905 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (185 to 186) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : Read the following information carefully to choose best option for the question: A. 'L%M' means that M is brother of L. B. 'L x M' means that L is mother of M. C. 'L?A' means that L is the sister of M. D. 'L = M' means that M is father of L. Sub questions Question Number : 185 Question Id : 1906 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Which of the following means "I is the nephew of Q?" 1. Q%J=I 2. Q?MxB%I 3. C?I=B%Q Options : 1. x(A): Only 3 2. x(B): Only 1 3. x(C): Only 2 4. ?(D): None of the above Question Number : 186 Question Id : 1907 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 If 'A $ B' means that A is the father of B, 'A B' means that A is the mother of B, 'A C B' means that A is the wife of B, then which of the following means that M is the grand-mother of N? Options : 1. x(A): M * R $ T @ N 2. x(B): M * R @ T @ N 3. x(C): M * T $ N @ R 4 ?(D):M * T $ N @ R Question Id : 1908 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (187 to 189) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : The question contains two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the information provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give your answer as: Answer (1) If the information in the statement I alone are sufficient to answer the questions. Answer (2) If the information in the statement II alone are sufficient to answer the questions. Answer (3) If the information either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the questions. Answer (4) If the information even in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the questions. Sub questions Question Number : 187 Question Id : 1909 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Can a democratic system operate without an effective opposition? I. The opposition is indispensable. II. A good politician always learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. Options : 1. x(A): Answer (1) 2. x(B): Answer (2) 3. ?(C): Answer (3) 4. x (D): Answer (4) Question Number : 188 Question Id : 1910 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Do habits make men's life rigid? I. It is out of habit that people envy others. II. Men become slave of habits. Options : 1. x(A): Answer (1) 2. ?(B): Answer (2) 3. x(C): Answer (3) 4. x(D): Answer (4) Question Number : 189 Question Id : 1911 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Does intelligence predict the child's ability to learn? I. Intelligence is unaffected by bad teaching or dull home environment. II. Children from poor home backgrounds do not do well in their school-work. Options : 1. x(A): Answer (1) 2. x(B): Answer (2) 3. x(C): Answer (3) 4. ?(D): Answer (4) Question Id : 1912 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (190 to 192) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : In the following question some capital alphabets are written in a row, below them their coding has been given. In the question, a particular word has been coded in a particular manner using codes as given below the capital letters. You have to understand the pattern of coding and have to answer the question asked subsequently. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z U a 2 v b w 3 t 4 x s y 5 z 6 c d 8 7 e r h 9 l p q Sub questions Question Number : 190 Question Id : 1913 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 If DASH is 2a84, then SMASH is? Options : 1. x(A): 7 5 LI 7 t 2. x(B): e y a 8 4 3. ?(C): 8 z q e 3 4. x(D): 8 z q e 4 Question Number : 191 Question Id : 1914 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 If FASHION is z64t7w, then POSITION is? Options : 1 . ?(A): z 6 4 e 4 7 6 c 2. x(B): z 6 4 e 4 7 c 6 3. x(C): c 6 7 4 e 4 6 z 4. x(D): c 6 7 4 e 4 z 6 Question Number : 192 Question Id : 1915 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 If LONDON is 5c6225, then EUROPE is? Options : 1. x(A): w h 7 c d w 2. ?(B): w h 7 z 6 v 3. x(C): b r 7 6 c b 4. x(D): w h 7 6 c b Question Id : 1916 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes Question Numbers : (193 to 194) Question Label : Comprehension DIRECTION FOR THE QUESTION : The question contains two statements and two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the two given statements. Answer (1) If only conclusion I follows. Answer (2) If only conclusion II follows. Answer (3) If neither I nor II follows. Answer (4) If both I and II follows. Sub questions Question Number : 193 Question Id : 1917 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Statements: I. Some players are singers. II. All singers are tall. Conclusions: I. Some players are tall. II. All players are tall. Options : 1. ?(A): Answer (1) 2. x(B): Answer (2) 3. x(C): Answer (3) 4. x(D): Answer (4) Question Number : 194 Question Id : 1918 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Statements: I. Some vegetables are fruits. II. No fruit is black. Conclusions: I. Some fruits are vegetables. II. No vegetable is black. Options : 1. ?(A): Answer (1) 2. x(B): Answer (2) 3. x(C): Answer (3) 4. x(D): Answer (4) Question Number : 195 Question Id : 1919 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 Amit first goes in South direction, then he turns towards left and travel for some distance. After that he turns right and moves certain distance. At last he turns left and travels again for some distance. Now, in which direction is he moving? Options : 1. x(A): South 2. x(3): West 3. ?(C): East 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 196 Question Id : 1920 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 There are six houses in a row. Mr. Aalekh has Mr. Mishra and Mr. Iliyas as neighbours. Mr. Mritynjay has Mr. Sandeep and Mr. Nayak as neighbours. Mr. Sandeep's house is not next to Mr. Mishra or Mr. Iliyas and Mr. Nayak does not live next to Mr. Iliyas. Who are Mr. Mishra's next door neighbours? Options : 1. x(A): Mr. Aalekh and Mr. Mishra 2. x(B): Mr. Aalekh and Mr. Iliyas 3. ?(C): Mr. Nayak and Mr. Aalekh 4. x(D): None of the above Question Number : 197 Question Id : 1921 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 From the word 'LAPAROSCOPY', how many independent meaningful English words can be made without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once? Options : 1. x(A): 1 2. ?(B): 2 3. x(C): 3 4. x(D): 4 Question Number : 198 Question Id : 1922 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 If Monday falls on 1st of October, which day will fall three days after the 20th in that month? Options : 1 x(A): Monday 2. ?(B): Tuesday S. x(C): Saturday 4. x(D): Wednesday Question Number : 199 Question Id : 1923 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 In the word GRAPHOLOGIST, if 1st and 7th letters. 2nd and 9th letters, 3rd and 11th letters, 4th and 8th letter, and 5th and 12th letters are mutually interchanged then which letter will be. 6th letter from the left of 10th letter from the left side? Options : 1. x(A): S 2. x(B): T 3. x(C): G 4. ?(D): None of the above Question Number : 200 Question Id : 1924 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No Correct : 1.0 Wrong : 0.25 The son of M is the father of N and grandfather (Mother's father) of R. S is the daughter of N and sister of B. On the basis of this information, how is M related to B? Options : 1. x(A): Grandfather 2. x(B): Grandmother 3. x(C): Grandmother's mother 4. None of the above ANNEXURE P-18 Analysis of Extracts of the Expert Committee report on Questions disputed by Ms. Pragya Budhraja and Ms. Kavya Lalchandani in the writ petition No. 6030 of 2015 - High Court of Delhi By Ashwini Vaidialingam, Spadika Jayaraj and Vineet Bhalla Q. CLAT How the ID. Com Expert Committee justification mitte has e's answer justified CLAT Why that is the incorrect Answ 1703 er 1(A) The Committee has 1. stated that answer key correct. It provided Providing the the dictionary meaning is does not amount to has providing context. It the is an assertion. dictionary meanings 2. Given the context of the eight words of the sentence, the used in the question movie for clarity". should be "contextual "censured" and not "censored". While a censor censor board a can movie, critic can censure only a movie. This is based on the dictionary definition that the CLAT committee itself has 1708 4(D) provided. The committee says While it that there is is the disputed not that indefinite article 'a' sentences C and D is missing in front of in the question are 'friend' in 'profitable' C and incorrect, in D. question the is still Therefore, Sentence vitiated by the fact C and D are wrong. that sentence B is Consequently, most the incorrect appropriate sentence answer is D. too. The 'B. Your stand is beyond all reasons' in the question is also incorrect. correct The way to frame that sentence would be 'Your stand is beyond all reason'. Neither option 4(D), nor any of the other options, reflect the correct answer, as none of them mention B, C 1729 1(A) An and D. of This answer explanation the meaning of the correct term 1(A) An the 'paraphrase' Committee's has been given. 1730 so is response is not being contested. of Option A drops the explanation the meaning of the negative phrase "no term 'paraphrase' telling". The has been given. The consequence is that Committee states then the sentence reads: that on "comparative analysis" with a "This government has given subsidies the to the Navratnas other three options, but there is whether Option 1(A) is the the most Even subsequent appropriate. government will do though the so" negative 'no telling' This does not make is missing in (A), and grammatical sense. (D) appears to be The justification closer to the "correct that Option D is not version", they the right answer on dismiss it on the the ground that is grounds that it has has "copied" words words copied from is unsustainable. It the source sentence. is a grammatically correct version that accurately paraphrases the original sentence. Option A being grammatically incorrect cannot be understood as the 1733 2(B) correct answer. The committee gives With regard to the two "linguistic first rationale, while perspectives" to it is submitted that justify this answer: (A) Prima 'dulcet' is often facie both used in an ironical the words seem to sense in certain be antonymous. contexts, its literal Since this is question a meaning still of remains as a sweet comprehension, examinee the or soothing sound. is In the present expected to feel the question, where the pulse of naturally it, that and word has way presented been without 'dulcet' will give any context, it is ironical sense "sweet of unreasonable and expect to the soothing". Hence the candidates to correct answer is (B) understand the - Crazy : Insane. word in a context- Here both the terms based sense stand in the same belies relationship case in as point 'Dulcet:Raucous' because terms the has its that literal the meaning. i.e. With regard to the second rationale, it first is submitted that the the examinee is to implied meaning of examine the the following - the relationship second. (B) In between dulcet and a second raucous. They are linguistic to then identify a consideration, the similar relationship. resemblance can be The drawn on the basis Committee of the analogy: Anything is dulcet is following examines CLAT instead the relationship which between dulcet and sweet- crazy, and between therefore, sweetness raucous and insane. may lead to They indulgence should or instead engagement in situation/or in a the have examined relationship a between crazy and given thing similarly insane. in a crazy situation Moreover, there is the person goes no effort made to wide and crazy when explain one is over occupied other by a sense why the options are of not more accurate. indulgence/engagem This is in violation ent in any given of situation/affair. their own recommendation Similarly, now let us that examinees are draw the between and analogy to do a 'raucous' "comparative 'insane'. A analysis" [Q. ID. No. 'raucous' situation is 1730]. Option C is one which leads to a obviously more noisy situation or a correct than Option disturbing situation - B. it may also lead to a resulting violent behavior. Now, in a situation of insanity also the noisy behavior, conduct disorderly or violent temperament may also be seen. It is on the basis analogy of this that the closest resemblance of the pairing words is found in the 'crazy-insane' situation as provided under option 2(B) of the given question. Therefore, the question is perfectly right. 1739 3(C) The committee The analyses answer the correct is so the relevant portions of Committee's the 1744 2(B) passage to response is not justify the answer. being contested. The committee Since this question states that this is the had been withdrawn answer to be derived by from reading paragraph. the CLAT the Implementation Committee, therefore the committee's response 1746 1(A) is being contested. committee The answer The states that this is the correct so not is the answer to be derived Committee's from 1766 1(A) reading the response is not paragraph. As per being contested. the In this question, committee, the what is meant by answer is being "largest" is unclear asked on the basis of - "popular number of perception employees/offices/o of general masses" perations, and not on specific earned, revenue customers data-wise details. To in a particular FY. ask for a complete Therefore, balance sheet of response the provided these corporates in by the Committee is order to answer this outrageous. If it is question would be impossible to "misplaced determine the cynicism" answer looking balance without at the sheets, then why give this peculiarly phrased question? A general knowledge question ought to be based on specific not facts, "popular perception 1824 2(B) of general masses". committee The answer is The refers to a foreign correct judgment and so an Committee's Indian book on tort response law 1825 3(C) to justify the is not the being contested. answer. The committee The states that the be answer 1(A), could 2(B), or answer is based on 3(C) on the reading S. 12, Indian of the legal Contract Act, 1872 proposition and that the cases While stated. option (C0 mentioned in Avatar makes reference to Singh's commentary the concept on the statute must burden be referred to of of proof, there is no mention in the proposition of this concept. This is an advanced concept in the law of evidence which CLAT aspirants cannot be expected to be aware of. Moreover, the Committee's reference to Avatar Singh indicates that they expect aspirants CLAT to have read the commentary preparing exam! for goes the very of 'aptitude' being the This against idea when legal that tested. is On the contrary, this is a 1826 2(B) test of The knowledge. committee 1. The states that legal Legal a proposition does not distinction is being state that such a made between offer difference exists. It and invitation to merely defines what offer. Reference is a 'proposal' is. In also made a the absence of the to British judgment and legal two books proposition on explicitly stating the contract law in this difference between regard. an offer and invitation to offer, the answer cannot be 2(B) 2. In any case, the fact situation described is not a situation of invitation to offer. On the contrary, it is an offer - "will you sell me your Rolls Royce CAR? Telegram the lowest cash price." This is the made. offer being When other the party responded through telegram with the lowest price that amounted 1830 3(C) to acceptance. committee The answer The refers to a foreign correct judgment and so 1832 2(B) to answer. The justify the an Committee's Indian book on tort response law is is not the being contested. Committee The legal states that this is the proposition principle states of that preparation is transferred malice as not an offence found in S. 301 of except in the case the IPC. They also of stipulate condition 'special the offences'. These when special offences are transferred malice is not stipulated in the applied - question. The CLAT reckless/negligent committee's answer act merely states the circumstances when the principle transferred of malice is applied. Moreover, a CLAT aspirant is not expected to have in-depth knowledge 1842 1(A) The of S. 301, IPC. Committee The question is a explains what a little strangely normative assertion phrased. It also is. They state that simplifies the issue the reason states on of the right to the socially desirable freedom of speech outcomes of the and expression in a right to freedom of manner that a CLAT speech and aspirant expression pick may Option However, not 1(A). on process a of elimination of the other answers, it is 1882 4 (D) The arguably correct. committee The assumptions states that the that underlie this question is based on answer- that there the initial is a separate 'price' presumption under and 'exchange which all the items value' for each item are differently priced but they have the including camera but same unit cost are the unit price is the completely non- same. Therefore, the obvious. It is unfair unit cost of camera to expect a student is initially Rs.2,500 to make these and total cost of two assumptions cameras is Rs.5,000 no but the with prompting exchange towards the same value of one camera from the question 1884 4 (D) is Rs.1,500 itself. As Z has owned the There is insufficient cycle before the data to solve the exchange has made question, the highest after as the profit exchange value of exchange, the cycle cannot be answer cycle will be calculated. For correct. If you instance, Z received evaluate all other a cycle from Y but options available for received nothing in the question, it return. Hence, it is becomes clear that Z not 'safe' to make has made maximum any assumptions profit and the cycle regarding this has been traded only question. once. Thus is it safe to assume that the highest exchange value was that of the 1886 2(B) cycle. As per the This question was committee, A & D incorrectly got it from copied the from the CAT 2003 mastermind, C got it test paper, as a from I and B got it result of which the from E & G. data for I incorrect is (as documented in ANNEXURES A1 and A2). As a result of this incorrect data, it is difficult conclude to C's sources and arrive at the committee's given findings with regard 1887 3(C) to this per question. the C's source cannot committee, C's be determined on As source is I, I's the basis of given sources are D & E, incorrect data. 1888 4(D) and E's source is A. As per the This question can committee, F got it be solved and the from H and E, B got committee's it from G and E, and findings can be A got it from the reached with the mastermind. Hence, data given so this among the options, question is not no one got it from G being disputed. 1889 3(C) and H. As per the Due to not knowing committee, introduced A C's sources wrong correctly as a result answer to question of the 46, I introduce wrong data, incorrect one cannot answer, due to which rule out option (A) correct that wrong F answer is as a possible introduced answer. answer Hence, it to will not be possible Question 14. to conclusively arrive at the given finding 1890 4(D) As of committee. the This question per committee, the can the be solved and the mastermind was the committee's source for A, D and findings can be G, and A was the reached with the source for E and H. data given so this question 1899 1(A) As not being disputed. the According to the per committee, is it is Answer Key and the direct observation CLAT because Committee, cabinet the statement "If he minister took wrong has put the steps. Options B and government in C are direct jeopardy, the observations (a fact) minister and Statement must 'D' resign" is an concludes both the Inference, that is, a statement 'D' & 'C'. logical conclusion or deduction about something based on the knowledge of facts. However, in the context of the preceding sentences, it is merely an opinion and not an inference. Since it is an opinion, it must be interpreted as a judgment 1902 1(A) Statement instead as well. 'C' Since this question defines the problem had been withdrawn and focuses on the by type of the CLAT problems Implementation occurring traffic due to Committee, congestion. therefore the Statement 'A' is the committee's conclusion 1904 2(B) of both response is not 'C' and 'B'. As per being contested. the This is incorrect as committee, the Statement B need Statement 'A' not follow from A defines focus that of software employees may not companies employ the and C. All Infotech is to be knowledge workers, workers as and Statement A does statement that knowledge C InfoTech software says not is say that a software companies company employ only and on the basis of knowledge workers. both statements we None of the options can 1906 4(D) conclude that are InfoTech employees correct. are knowledge workers As per therefore the The statement "2" committee, none of clearly explains that the options are I is a male, as B%I correct because the means given inference I is B's in brother. The mother the question cannot of I and B is M, who be drawn with has a sister Q. So certainty clearly, statement 2 says that "I is the nephew of Q. So option (C) should be the correct answer. 1907 3 (C) As per the Since this question and 4 committee, since M had been corrected (D) is mother of T and T by is father therefore the CLAT of N, Implementation M is Committee grandmother of N. by awarding marks for both identical correct options, therefore the committee's response 1909 3 (C) As per is being contested. the The answer committee, correct so not is the Statements 1 and 2 Committee's both individually response corroborate the being contested. question because it is well is established not that without effective opposition, democracy 1914 1 (A) cannot function. As per the The committee, the "FASHION" word coding is in reverse seven-letter order. read It must as and solved. be but is a word, the NOIHSAF corresponding code has 6 alpha- numerical digits. Even if the coding is in reverse order, the code for the letter A in NOISHAF is not provided. Thus, the question is unsolvable. 1921 2(B) As per the First, both 'laparo' committee, two and 'scopy' are not meaningful words meaningful words in can made. themselves and are be 'Laparo' and 'Scopy'. merely combining forms. Second, the instructions are unclear and can be subject to multiple interpretations. If the instructions mean that letter from each the parent word can be used only once, the correct answer would be B, with the words being 'LAP' and 'COY'. If it means that each word that is formed can use each letter only once, answer the would be None of the Above, as the words LAP, PAR, COY, COP, COPY etc can be made. Further, it is unclear whether without changing the order letters, letters of the certain can be removed when making the words. The validity of words such as COY (with the removed) depend P would on interpretation. this ANNEXURE P-19 CLARIFICATION ON CLERICAL ERROR IN CLAT 2011 TEST PAPER After the UG and PG tests held on 15th May, 2011, the CLAT office has carefully checked the question paper in all the four series and has found no error in the substance of any question. It was however found that some questions in some series of the UG paper has answers that were underlined. Further, some of the questions in the PG test paper had some printing errors. Those errors have been noted and a decision has been taken that no candidate would be unfairly prejudiced as a result of these mistakes. Accordingly, every candidate who wrote the exam was awarded one mark each for each of these questions where underlining or a material printing error. CLAT CONVENOR CLAT 2011 there has been ANNEXURE P-20 IN THE HIGH COURT OF DELHI W.P.(C) 4147/2012 Decided On: 19.07.2013 Appellants: Archit Krishna Vs. Respondent: National Law University & Anr. Hon'ble Judges/Coram: V.K. Jain, J. Counsels: For Appellant/Petitioner/Plaintiff: Mr. R.K. Handoo, Mr. Yoginder Handoo, Mr. Manish Shukla and For Respondents/Defendant: Mr. Anand Varma, Adv. JUDGMENT V. K. Jain, J. 1. The petitioner before this Court appeared in Common Law Admission Test (CLAT), 2012 conducted by the respondents for the purpose of admission to various national law schools / universities. The said test is conducted by one or the other national law college/university, on a rotational basis. In the application form, the candidates were required to give preference for the universities/colleges participating in the said test. The petitioner was required to choose all the 14 colleges/ universities granting admission on the basis of the aforesaid test, in the order of their preference. The first four colleges/ universities indicated by the petitioner, in the order of preference, were NLSIU-Bangalore, NALSAR-Hyderabad, NLIU-Bhopal and WBNUJS-Kolkata. The petitioner obtained 141 marks in the said test and considering his position in the merit list, he could get admission in WBNUJS-Kolkata, which was the fourth preference exercised by him. The grievance of the petitioner is that the answers notified by the respondents in respect of as many as four questions was incorrect, as a result of which he was given 141 marks though he should have been given 145 marks. According to him, had he been given 145 marks, to which he was lawfully entitled, he would have got admission in NLSIU-Bangalore, which was his first choice out of 14 schools/ universities participating in the test. According to him, even 142 marks to him would have ensured his admission to NALSARHyderabad, which was his second choice in the order of preference. The petitioner is accordingly seeking the following reliefs: a. issue appropriate appropriate writ, writ of direction mandamus or or directing order, any other the respondents to transfer petitioner"s admission to NLSIU, Bangalore or NALSAR- Hyderabad, on the basis of merit cum preference, after correcting the wrong answers and setting right the anomalies in the question paper and/or; b. to direct the respondents to award 4 additional marks to the petitioner; c. to direct the respondents to submit before this Hon"ble Court the OMR answer sheet of the petitioner. 2. The respondent has contested the petition and taken a preliminary objection that the issue involved in this writ petition stands covered by a decision of this Court dated 31.7.2012 in W.P(C) No.3732/2012, where this Court rejected the challenge to the aforesaid examination, which included challenge to the answers notified by the respondent in respect of certain questions, including Question No. 56 and 197 which are subject matter of this writ petition. On merits, the respondent has maintained that the answers notified in the answer-key are correct answers. 3. The challenge in present writ petition is confined to Question Nos. 56, 75, 193 and 197. As far as challenge to the answer to Question No.56 is concerned, a perusal of the order dated 31.7.2012 passed by this Court in W.P(C) No.3732/2012 would show that the challenge was expressly rejected by this Court in the said decision. However, no view was expressed by this Court with respect to answer to questions no.75, 193 and 197. Therefore, I propose to examine whether the answers contained in the answer-key to question nos.75, 193 and 197 can be said to be so patently and unquestionably incorrect as to warrant interference by the Court in exercise of its writ jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution. The aforesaid questions read as under: 4. Question no.197 : The Right to Equality is guaranteed by (A)Article 14 to 18 (B) Article 14 (C) Article 14and 15 (D)Article 14, 15 and 16. As per answer-key, the correct answer is (D), whereas according to the petitioner, the correct answer is (A). In our Constitution, Articles 14 to 18 find mention in Part-III under the Heading "Right to Equality". However, a perusal of Article 17 and 18 would show that neither of these Articles really deals with the "Right to Equality", Article 17 provides for abolition of untouchability whereas Article 18 provides for abolition of titles. Therefore, though Articles 17 and 18 are also clubbed with Article 14 to 16 under the heading "Right to Equality", the said right is actually not guaranteed by either of these Articles. Hence, I find no merit in the contention that answer (A) is correct answer. 5. Question no.75: Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) completed how many years of operation in 2011? (A)3 years (B) 4 years (C) 5 years (D)6 years. As per answer-key, the correct answer is (D) whereas according to the petitioner, the correct answer is (C). Admittedly, Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act came to be passed by Parliament on 25.8.2005, it received assent of the President on 05.09.2005 and was notified on 02.02.2006. Section 1(3) of the aforesaid Act reads as under: "(3) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint; and different dates may be appointed for different States or for different areas in a State and any reference in. any such provision to the commencement of this Act shall be construed as a reference to the coming into force of that provision in such State or, as the case may be, in such area: Provided that this Act shall be applicable to the whole of the territory to which it extends within a period of five years from the date of enactment of this Act." It would thus be seen that the aforesaid Act did not come into force immediately on its being passed by Parliament. It came into force only on 02.02.2006 when it was notified in Gazette of India. An Act of Parliament cannot be said to have become operational before it is notified, when the Act itself provides that it will come into force only on the appointed date. The years of operation, therefore, will commence only from the appointed date and not from the date the Act was passed by Parliament. Since the Act came into force/operation only on 02.02.2006, it has completed 5, not 6 years of operation in the year 2011. Therefore, the answer to this question, as contained in the answer key, is neither a correct nor one of the possible correct answers. The answer to this question being mathematical in the sense that to arrive at a correct answer one has only to see how many years, from the date of coming into force of the Act, had passed up to 2011, there can be no two possible answers to this question. I, therefore, hold that the answer to this question, notified by the respondent was an incorrect answer. 6. Question No. 193 X went to Y"s house and forgot his bag which contained 1 kg sweets. Y"s children consumed the sweets. Decide the liability of Y. (A) Y is bound to pay the price of sweets to X (B) Y is not bound to pay anything (C) Y is bound to pay half the price of sweets. (D)Y would not have to pay anything because X loves Y's children. According to the petitioner, the correct answer to the aforesaid question is 'A', whereas according to the respondents, the correct answer is 'B'. In support of their contention that 'A' is the correct answer to the abovereferred question, the petitioners rely upon Section 70 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 and illustration (a) to the aforesaid Section which reads as under: "70. Obligation of person enjoying benefit of non- gratuitous act.- Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered. Illustrations (a) A, a tradesman, leaves goods at B' s house by mistake. B treats the goods as his own. He is bound to pay A for them." As rightly pointed out in the counter-affidavit, there are three conditions for invoking Section 70 of Indian Contract Act. Firstly, the goods are to be delivered or something has to be done for another person lawfully. Secondly, the thing done or the goods delivered must be done or delivered must be done without intention to do so gratuitously and thirdly, the person to whom goods are delivered enjoys the benefit thereof. The aforesaid Section will apply only if all the three conditions mentioned above are established in a given case. If any of these conditions is lacking, there would be no scope for applicability of the said section. There was nothing unlawful in 'X' forgetting his bag, containing sweets in the house of 'Y'. Therefore, the first condition for applicability of Section 70 of Contract Act was fulfilled in this case. It is obvious from a perusal of the question that the sweets were not meant for 'Y' or his children and was not a gift for them. Obviously, 'X' was acting non-gratuitously when he forgot his bag in the house of 'Y'. Therefore, the second condition also stands fulfilled. But, since the sweets were consumed by the children of 'Y' and not by 'Y' himself, the third condition that the person to whom the goods are delivered should enjoy benefit thereof, is not fulfilled in this case, when no negligence, etc. is attributed to 'Y'. In any case, the answer 'B' to the aforesaid question, in my view, cannot be said to be apparently incorrect so as to warrant interference by this Court in exercise of jurisdiction underArticle 226 of the Constitution. In my view, considering the information available in the question, it can hardly be disputed that answer 'B' is the correct answer or at least the most appropriate answer in respect of the above- referred question. 7. The learned counsel for the respondent contended that another writ petition being W.P.(C) No. 3732 of 2012: Shivani Gupta vs. National Law University, Jodhpur and Anr., challenging the answers to notify by the respondent to some of the questions asked in this very examination, having been dismissed, another writ petition, challenging answers to certain questions in the very same examination, should not be entertained. A perusal of the decision of this Court in the above-referred case would show that during the hearing of the aforesaid case, the respondent submitted that after examination was conducted, the assertions made in the different representations were examined by three experts appointed by the Convener, which found the question paper and the key absolutely in order and the said Committee had recorded reasons for the conclusions arrived at by them. In this regard, they also placed reliance on the decision of Supreme Court in Sanchit Bansal vs. Joint Admission Board (2012) 1 SCC 157. There is no material before this Court to show that the writ petitions examined by the aforesaid Committee included the representation in respect of questions No. 75 and 193. If that was the position, the reasons recorded by the Expert Committee for the conclusions arrived at by them in respect of the aforesaid questions should have been placed before the Court. Therefore, the Court does not know whether the answers in respect of questions No. 75 and 193 were re-examined by the Expert Committee and if so, what were the reasons for which the Committee came to the conclusion that the answers contained in the answer key were correct. I also find that this Court actually examined correctness or otherwise of the answer in respect of question No. 56 and concluded that the answer contained in the answer key was, in fact, the correct answer. As regards the decision in Sanchit Bansal (supra), I find no such proposition of law in the aforesaid decision which would prevent this Court from interfering even where it finds that the answer contained in the answer key in respect of a particular question cannot even be said to be one of the possible correct/appropriate answers, not to speak of the most appropriate answer. 8. In Kanpur University, through Vice-Chancellor and Ors. vs. Samir Gupta and Ors. (1983)4 SCC 309, while considering challenge to correctness of key answers, the Apex Court, inter alia, held as under:"16. We agree that the key-answer should be assumed to be correct unless it is proved to be wrong and that it should not be held to be wrong by an inferential process of reasoning or by a process of rationalisation. It must be clearly demonstrated to be wrong, that is to say, it must be such as no reasonable body of men well-versed in the particular subject would regard as correct..... 17......If this were a case of doubt, we would have unquestionably preferred the key answer. But if the matter is beyond the realm of doubt, it would be unfair to penalise the students for not giving an answer which accords with the key answer, that is to say, with an answer which is demonstrated to be wrong." In the aforesaid case, Supreme Court confirmed the direction given by the High Court for re-assessment to certain questions on the ground that the answers provided in the answer key were wrong. Manish Ujwal and Ors. vs. Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati University and Ors. (2005) 13 SCC 744, some of the candidates, who appeared in the entrance test, disputed correctness of the answers to certain question in Physics, Chemistry and Biology. The High Court sought expert opinion from Jodhpur University and Udaipur University with respect to answers to the aforesaid questions. The unanimous opinion of the experts in respect of six questions was that the answers, notified by the University to those questions were erroneous. However, despite that no relief to the petitioners was granted by the High Court. Setting aside the decision of High Court, the Apex Court took the view that the student community could not be made to suffer on account of errors committed by the University. In this regard, the Court observed that first and paramount reason being the welfare of the students, wrong key answer can result in the merit being made a casualty. In D.P.S. Chawla v. Union of India & Ors. 184(2011) DLT 96, a Division Bench of this Court found that the answer, contained in the answer key in respect of one question, was wrong. The Court, accordingly, enhanced the marks secured by the petitioner in the first paper form 49% to 50%, thereby declaring him successful in the examination and eligible for promotion. In Gunjan Sinha Jain vs. Registrar General, High Court Of Delhi, W.P.(C) No. 449/2012 and connected matters, decided on 09.04.2012, a Division Bench of this Court found certain answers contained in the answer key in respect of Delhi Judicial Service Examination to be incorrect and accordingly substituted those incorrect answers by what the Court felt were correct answers. 9. It would this be seen that the petitioner is entitled to mark only in respect of the answer given by him to question No. 75 in case 'C' was the answer given by him to the said question. If any negative mark has been given to the petitioner on account of the answer given by him to the aforesaid question, the said negative mark also needs to be excluded from consideration, while computing the revised marks to the petitioner. 10. The next question, which arises for this consideration, is as to what relief, in the facts and circumstances of the case, can be given to the petitioner at this stage. The petitioner was granted admission in WBNUJS-Kolkata in the Academic Session 2012-2013. He has already completed one year of study and in case he has passed the first year paper, he would now be studying in second year of the course. The case of the petitioner is that had he been given 142 marks, he would have got admission in NALSAR-Hyderabad, which was the second option, exercised by him. Though the petitioner has sought transfer to NLSIU- Bangalore or NALSAR-Hyderabad, in my view, it would not be appropriate to direct transfer of the petitioner from WBNUJS-Kolkata to NALSAR-Hyderabad at this stage. There are specified number of seats in NALSAR-Hyderabad and all those seats stand already filled. There is no material on record to show that there is any vacancy in the second year of the batch which was admitted in NALSAR-Hyderabad, in the year 2012. The transfer of the petitioner from WBNUJS-Kolkata to NALSAR-Hyderabad would, therefore, result not only in NALSAR- Hyderabad being made to admit beyond its sanctioned strength, one seat in WBNUJS-Kolkata would also fall vacant and go waste in the process. Neither WBNUJSKolkata nor NALSAR-Hyderabad is a party to this petition. This is yet another reason why the relief sought to by the petitioner cannot be granted to him. 11. In these circumstances, the writ petition is disposed of with a direction to the respondents to declare the revised results of the petitioner within four weeks, treating option ,,C" as the correct answer of Question No. 75. The writ petition stands disposed of accordingly. There shall be no order as to costs. ANNEXURE P-21 IN THE HIGH COURT OF DELHI W.P.(C) No. 3208/2012 & Cm No. 6861/2012 Decided On: 25.05.2012 Appellants: Ujjwal Madan & Ors. Vs. Respondent: Union of India & Ors. Hon'ble Judges/Coram: Hon'ble Mr. Justice Sunil Gaur For Appellant/Petitioner/Plaintiff: Mr. Jayant Bhushan, Senior Advocate with Mr. Vikas Mehta and Ms. Aditi Bhat, Advocates For Respondents/Defendant: Mohd. Aslam Khan, Advocate, for respondent No.1. Mr. Sanjeev Sachdeva, Senior Advocate with Mr. Preet Pal Singh, Ms. Priyam Mehta, for respondent No.2/BCI, Mr. Sandeep Sethi, Senior Advocate with Mr. Anand Varma and Mr. Amit Pathak, Advocates for respondents 3 and 4 ORDER Hon'ble Mr. Justice Sunil Gaur 1. The result of Common Law Admission Test (hereinafter referred to as "CLAT") conducted by the third respondent on 13th May, 2012 is to be declared on 28th May, 2012. The three petitioners herein have approached this Court on 23rd May, 2012 to seek a direction to the fourth respondent to produce the question paper of the CLAT conducted on 13th May, 2012, as it is asserted by the petitioners that the questions put in the General Knowledge and Legal Aptitude section of this examination were beyond the scope of the syllabus prescribed by the third respondent. A direction is also sought to the contesting respondents i.e. the third and fourth respondents i.e. the contesting respondents to exclude the questions which were out of the syllabus and to then declare the result of this examination. A prayer for institutionalizing CLAT examinations to maintain a consistent standard has been also sought in this petition. At the hearing of this petition, learned senior counsel for the petitioners had drawn the attention of this Court to the Information Brochure issued by the contesting respondents for the CLAT, 2012 to point out that it was clearly stipulated therein that in the General Knowledge/Current Affairs Examination, the knowledge of Current Affairs of the students would be tested broadly pertaining to matters featuring in the mainstream media between March, 2011 and March, 2012 2. To show that the General knowledge/ Current Affairs section of CLAT, 2012 was out of syllabus, learned Senior Counsel for the petitioners drew the attention of this Court to the questions (Annexure-P-2). Recollection of these questions (Annexure P-2) put in the CLAT, 2012 is said to be based upon the memory of the petitioners. 3. Regarding the Legal Aptitude section of CLAT, 2012, it was asserted by learned senior counsel for the petitioners that 35 out of 50 questions on the subject were completely out of syllabus as the questions put in the Legal Aptitude section had assumed that the students had a prior knowledge of law and that the questions on legal aptitude relied upon principles which did not explain the technical terms used therein, whereas, the Information Brochure of CLAT, 2012 had made it clear that the students/ candidates would not be tested on any prior knowledge of law or legal concepts and if a technical/ legal term is used in the question, that term will be explained in the question itself and that the Legal Aptitude section of CLAT, 2012 is of vital importance in breaking the tie between the two students scoring even marks. To indicate that the questions put in the Legal Aptitude section of CLAT, 2012 were out of syllabus, few illustrations from the Legal Aptitude section of CLAT, 2012, based upon the memory of the petitioners is appended as Annexure-P3 with the writ petition. 4. To contend that the questions which are out of syllabus have to be excluded from consideration, learned senior counsel for the petitioners had placed reliance upon a Division Bench decision of this Court in Gunjan Sinha Jain vs. Registrar General, High Court of Delhi; MANU/DE/1481/2012 : 188(2012) DLT 627. 5. Learned senior counsel for the contesting respondents resists this writ petition by urging that it is premature and that the General Knowledge/ Current Affairs section of CLAT, 2012 is not confined to Current Affairs only and so it cannot be said that the General Knowledge/ Current Affairs section of CLAT, 2012 is out of syllabus. It was pointed out by learned senior counsel for the contesting respondents that the representations already received from the other candidates alleging that the questions set in CLAT, 2012 are out of syllabus, is already under active consideration of the contesting respondents and a decision thereon would be positively taken before the declaration of the results of CLAT, 2012. It is the assertion of learned senior counsel for the contesting respondents that the petitioners have not made any such representation and in any case the grievance made in this petition is already under active consideration in the representations of other candidates, which is being promptly dealt with. The decision in Gunjan (supra) relied upon by the petitioners is stated to be subject matter of a pending Special Leave Petition before the Apex Court. 6. Attention of this Court was drawn by learned senior counsel for the contesting respondents to a recent decision of the Apex Court in Sanchit Bansal & Anr. Vs. Joint Admission Board & Ors., (2012) I Supreme Court Cases 157 to highlight that the Courts refrain from interfering with evaluation procedures of IIT-JEE or the like even if it is not accurate or efficient, until and unless malafides or arbitrariness is alleged and in any case, no mala fides or arbitrariness can be imputed to the contesting respondents. 7. It is true that merely because representations of similarly situated candidates are pending consideration with the contesting respondents, it would not oust the petitioners, but since the factual aspects are subject matter of dispute between the contesting parties, therefore, it is neither advisable or feasible to derail the selection procedure for CLAT, 2012. 8. In the considered opinion of this Court, it is found to be not feasible to direct the contesting respondents to produce the question papers of General Knowledge/ Current Affairs section and Legal Aptitude section of CLAT, 2012 or to entertain this petition to find out whether the question put under the aforesaid sections in CLAT, 2012 were out of syllabus or not, because the contesting respondents are already actively considering this aspect while promptly dealing with the representations of the other candidates. In any case, the decision in Gunjan (supra) relied upon by the petitioners, does not advance their case as the challenge to the Delhi Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination of the year 2011 was laid by the candidates after the result of the said examination was declared. 9. The process of achieving the objective of selecting candidates for specialized courses are technical matters in the academic field and the Courts will not interfere with the evaluation process. The pertinent observations made by the Apex Court in this regard in Sanchit Bansal (supra) are as under: 39. The procedure adopted in JEE 2006 may not be the best of procedures, nor as sound and effective as the present procedures. In fact the action taken by the appellants in challenging the procedure for JEE 2006, their attempts to bring in transparency in the procedure by various RTI applications, and the debate generated by the several views of experts during the course of the writ proceedings, have helped in making the merit-ranking process more transparent and accurate. IITs and the candidates who now participate in the examinations must, to a certain extent, thank the appellants for their effort in bringing such transparency and accuracy in the ranking procedure. But there is no ground for the courts to interfere with the procedure, even if it was not accurate or efficient, in the absence of mala fides or arbitrariness or violation of law. It is true that if in JEE 2006, a different or better process had been adopted, or the process now in vogue had been adopted, the results would have been different and the first appellant might have obtained a seat. But on that ground it is not possible to impute mala fides or arbitrariness, or grant any relief to the first appellant. Therefore, the appellant will have to be satisfied in being one of the many unsung heroes who helped in improving the system 10. light of aforenoted dicta of the Apex Court and in view of the fact that the contesting respondents are already seized with the matter of some questions put in CLAT, 2012 being out of course, which is seriously disputed by contesting respondents, this Court is not inclined to exercise its discretionary extra ordinary writ jurisdiction to entertain this petition, which is dismissed in limini while refraining to comment upon the issue of questions put in CLAT, 2012 being out of course or not. Needless to say, that uninfluenced by this order, the contesting respondents would effectively deal with the representations made by the other candidates before declaring the result of CLAT, 2012 and dismissal of this petition as premature, would not preclude the petitioners from seeking the remedy as available in law after declaration of the result of CLAT, 2012. With the aforesaid observations, this petition and the pending application stand disposed of. ANNEXURE P-22 IN THE HIGH COURT OF DELHI W.P. (C) 3732/2012 and CM.7831/2012 Decided On: 31.07.2012 Appellants: Shivangi Gupta Vs. Respondent: National Law Univeristy Jodhpur & Anr Hon'ble Judges/Coram: Hon'ble Mr. Justice G.S. Sistani Counsels: For Appellant/Petitioner/Plaintiff: Mr. R.K. Handoo, Mr. Sethi, Sr. Yoginder Handoo and Mr. S.P. Pandey, Advs For Respondents/Defendant: Mr. Sandeep Advocate, Mr. Anand Varma and Mr. Amit Pathak, Advocates JUDGMENT G.S. Sistani, J. 1. Rule. 2. With the consent of counsel for the parties, the writ petition is set down for final hearing and disposal. The necessary facts to be noticed for disposal of this writ petition are that the petitioner appeared in the Senior Secondary School Examination, 2012 conducted by CBSE and cleared the same. Petitioner, thereafter applied and appeared in the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT), 2012. This exam was conducted on 13.05.2012. It may be noticed that the CLAT examination is conducted by the National Law Schools every year on rotation basis in sequence to their establishment and accordingly this year"s exam was conducted by the respondents, National Law University, Jodhpur, Rajasthan, for 14 National Law Schools/ Universities for admission to the under graduate degree programme; and the successful candidates are to be allotted to all other National Law Schools/ Universities, as per their All India Rank in (CLAT), 2012, for the year 2012. The result of this examination was declared on 28.05.2011. The petitioner has secured 113 marks, while the cut-off declared by the respondent is 123 marks. Since the marks of the petitioner were less than the cut-off declared by the respondent, the petitioner could not qualify for admission in the B.A./BSc./B.B.A./BSW/B.Com. LLB (Hons.) Degree course. The All India Rank of the petitioner is 2719. According to the petitioner, the information brochure which was provided by the respondents along with the application form specified the syllabus for Common Law Admission Test. 3. Mr.Handoo, counsel for the petitioner has relied on various clauses of the brochure to show that the respondents have asked such questions in the legal aptitude section which are incomplete in nature. It is the case of the petitioner that the questions are out of the syllabus and the inclusion of these questions in the examination has rendered the preparation of the petitioner as nugatory and consequently the petitioner was incapable to answer these questions on the basis of the preparation of the syllabus. 4. Counsel for the petitioner submits that the exam conducted and result declared is not the true test of ability / merit, but a test based on hit and trial where merit has become a casualty. Counsel for the petitioner contends that with a view to get the anomaly corrected in the question paper, the petitioner respondents and also made an a representation application under to the Right toInformation Act. Since no positive reply was received from the respondents, No.3675/2012. petitioner filed a writ petition 5. In the aforesaid writ petition, this Court directed the respondents to upload the question paper and model answer key. Mr.Handoo, counsel for the petitioner submits that the question paper has revealed three types of irregularities which has rendered the whole process perfunctory and have caused great prejudice to the petitioner. Counsel for the petitioner has categorized the irregularities in the whole process and has submitted that there are questions which are wrongly answered in the model answer key (hereinafter referred to as "category-1"); there are questions which relate to the field of legal aptitude, which are incomplete in nature, as the question paper did not supply enough information i.e. principle on the basis of which the question is to be answered (hereinafter referred to as "category-2") and questions which are out of syllabus (hereinafter referred to as "category-3"). In the writ petition the petitioner has given examples of these questions. As per the petitioner, the answer key, has suggested wrong answers to the following questions: i.e. question Nos.56, 86, 186, 193, 197, 200. For the sake of illustration, question no.56 is reproduced below: "QUESTION NO.56: Identify the Indian Tennis player who has turned Hollywood filmmaker? (A) Vijay Amritraj (B) Mahesh Bhupathi (C) Leander Paes (D) Ashok Amritraj Answer key suggests that the correct answer is (A), which is wrong. The correct answer is (D)" 6. Similarly in category-2, legal aptitude 18 questions are stated to be incomplete; and in category-3, the respondents did not confine themselves to the syllabus and there were several questions which are neither relate to current affairs nor fall in the period from March, 2011 to March, 2012, but were spread over the field of science, geography and history, details of these questions have been reproduced in the writ petition. It is also the case of the petitioner that several other questions which are not framed as per the prospectus syllabus and are very complex and require prior knowledge of law. It is the case of the petitioner that she has secured 113 marks against the cut-off 123 marks and answers to six questions are found wrong, which have adversely affected the merit of the petitioner, resulting in denial of a fair chance to compete in the exam. 7. Elaborating his argument further Mr.Handoo, counsel for the petitioner has placed reliance on the admission brochure and more particularly at serial nos.2, 5 which are reproduced below: "2. General Knowledge / Current Affairs This section will only test students on their knowledge of current affairs (broadly defined as matters featuring in the mainstream media between March, 2011 and March, 2012). 5. Legal Aptitude This section will test students only on "legal aptitude". Questions will be framed with the help of legal propositions (described in the paper), and a set of facts to which the said proposition has to be applied. Some propositions may not be "true" in the real sense (e.g. the legal proposition might be that any person who speaks in a movie hall and disturbs others who are watching the movie will be banned from entering any movie theatre across India for one year). Candidates will have to assume the "truth" of these propositions and answer the question accordingly. Candidates will not be tested on any prior knowledge of law or legal concepts. If a technical/ legal term is used in the question, that term will be explained in the question itself. For example, if the word patent is used, the meaning of patent ("a legal monopoly granted by the government for certain kinds of inventions") will also be explained." 8. It is submitted that the questions of general knowledge were not current in nature and neither they were with respect to the period between March, 2011 and March, 2012. 9. Mr.Handoo, learned counsel for the petitioner, submits that respondents have asked such questions in legal aptitude, which are incomplete in nature, and questions were also out of syllabus. With respect to Category 2 (Legal Aptitude) it is the case of the petitioner that this section is of great importance because the score of this Section will decide in case of tie between two candidates. According to the petitioner, in this section there is a heavy deviation of syllabus by the respondents. The questions asked in this section are incomplete in nature or else they did not provide the principle on the basis of which the question is supposed to be solved or they have asked such questions, which presupposes a deep knowledge of law, which is not the purpose of the examination. The examples of such questions have been given by the petitioner. With regard to Category 3 (General Knowledge/Current Affairs) Mr.Handoo submits that respondents did not confine themselves to the syllabus and there were several questions, which neither relate to current affairs nor fall to the period between 2011 to March, 2012, but were spread over the fields of Science, Geography and History. Illustrations of these questions have been given in the petition. Q 52 reads as under: QUESTION 52 Which is the largest gland in the human body? (A) Pancreas (B) Liver (C) Thyroid (D) Pituitary 10. Reliance is placed on Kanpur University & Ors. Vs. Samir Gupta & Ors. AIR 1983 SC 1230 by Mr.Handoo, in support of his submission that in multiple choice objective type test, the examiner must ensure that the questions are unambiguous. Paragraph 18 of the judgment reads as under: "18........ Fourthly, in a system of ,,Multiple Choice Objective type test", care must be taken to see that questions having an ambiguous import are not set in the papers. That kind of system of examination involves merely the tick- marking of the correct answer. It leaves no scope for reasoning or argument. The answer is ,,yes" or ,,no". That is why the questions have to be clear and unequivocal. Lastly, if the attention of the University is drawn to any defect in a key answer or any ambiguity in a question set in the examination, prompt and timely decision must be taken by the University to declare that the suspect question will be excluded from the paper and no marks assigned to it." 11. Reliance is also placed by Mr.Handoo, on a decision of this court in the case of Surjit Saurva Vs. High Court of Delhi & Anr. [WP(C)No. 8028/2008], in support of his plea that in case the Court comes to the conclusion that the questions were outside the syllabus, the questions are to be withdrawn from the examination. 12. Mr.Sandeep Sethi, learned senior counsel for the respondent submits that there is no substance in the contention raised by the petitioner. Mr.Sethi, also submits that each law schools owes its existence under the Statute enacted by the State Legislature and almost all the law schools are headed by Hon"ble Chief Justice of India, as visitor and the Chief Justices of therespective High Courts, as Chancellors. candidates Realizing to appear the in difficulties a of competitive the aspiring examination conducted by different Law Schools, the Chief Justice of India and the Visitor convened a meeting of the Vice Chancellors of the 7 Law Schools in the year 2007. It was agreed between all the National Law Schools in the presence of the representative of the Ministry of Human Resources, Vice Chairman of the University Grants Commission and the Chairman of the Bar Council of India that CLAT shall be conducted every year by rotation by each of the 7 National Law Schools, beginning with the oldest amongst them. An MOU was signed which provided that there shall be a Committee known as Core Committee for the purpose of describing and providing all policies in respect of CLAT. All the Vice Chancellors of existing 14 National Law Schools are Members of the Core Committee. There is an Implementation Committee consisting of all the Registrars of the 14 National Law Schools. There is a complete procedure provided for conducting the CLAT examination. The entire admission process through CLAT is time-tested because of the strict adherence to the time-bound academic schedule. The CLAT tried to make best assessment of the aspiring candidates" mental and analysis reasoning. The test goes beyond subject knowledge gained from different Central or State Board syllabus for XI or XII standard. Application oriented questions (essential for the regime of legal education) figures in the question paper. 13. Mr.Sethi, counsel for the respondent has also stated that out of 23885 candidates, who appeared, admissions were given to the successful candidates in 14 National Law Schools. They were asked to deposit the fees on or before 9th June, 2012. The candidates who failed to deposit the fees, their names were struck-off and 2nd list was issued reshuffling the candidates as per their higher choice. The CLAT has taken the entire exercise in 4 rounds. The last round was completed on 30th June, 2012. The last candidate admitted in NLUJA, Assam with his All India Rank at Serial Number 1354 in General category. Now, the entire process through CLAT is closed. All the seats have been filled-in. The students have been admitted in all the 14 National Law Schools and they have deposited their fees. After 30th June, 2012, the CLAT has nothing to do with the admission process. It is entirely between the students and the concerned National Law School. 14. It is contended by Mr.Sethi, that in view of the fact that the entire admission process stands completed a right stands vested in a large number of students, who have been admitted in the National Law School. The studies have commenced from 02.07.2012, except in one or two law schools. Thus any interference in the admission process by way of revision of result or quashing the entire examination process cannot be considered without opportunity being given to each national law school and the students admitted therein. Mr.Sethi, contends that in the absence of the students who would be affected, the present writ petition is liable to be dismissed on account of non-joinder of parties. Reliance is placed on K.H. Siraj Vs. High Court of Kerala 2006 (6) SCC 395 para 75 wherein it has been held that all the candidates in the select list should be impleaded as party to the writ petition as otherwise, they will be affected without being heard. The contention with respect to the publication in the newspaper was also rejected as it was not a case of un-specified number of people affected. As per the list of candidates admitted to different Law Schools, the name of each student has been given. 15. Mr.Sethi, also submits that in the aforesaid decision the writ petition was dismissed for non-joinder of parties. Reliance is also placed in the case of Bhagwanti Vs. Subordinate Services Selection Board, Haryana and Ors. 1995 Supp (2) SCC 663, the Hon"ble Supreme Court, set aside the judgment of the High Court on the ground of nonjoinder of parties. The court held that "... it is settled position of law that no order of determent can be passed without hearing..........". Counsel for the respondent has also placed reliance in the case of Ishwar Singh Vs. Kuldip Singh 1995 Supp (1) SCC 179, wherein the Apex Court has held that when appointment has already been made, the requirement of natural justice as an opportunity of hearing is given to the said parties; and reliance is also placed in the case of State of Karala Vs. W.I. Services & Estates Limited and Ors. (1998) 5 SCC 583, wherein the writ petition was dismissed as not maintainable in absence of the candidates selected as parties. 16. Mr.Sethi, further submits that a minor group less than 50 aspiring candidates have approached the respondents, some of whom have also filed representations. It is contended by counsel for the respondent that the CLAT question paper has been set by a group of experts in the field with high reputation, who are familiar with the pattern provided in the brochure of CLAT-2012, and the same is moderated by another equally eminent group of experts, which would rule out any sort of possibility of any question of being out of pattern provided or wrong answers provided in the CLAT key. 17. Counsel for the respondent further submits that after the examination was conducted the assertions made in the different representations have been examined by a committee of three experts appointed by the Convener which found the question paper and key absolutely in order. The Committee has recorded reasons for the conclusions arrived at by them. While relying upon Sanchit Bansal Vs. Joint AdmissionBoard (2012) 1 SCC 157, Mr.Sethi submits that the petitioner cannot ask for the substitution of reasoning advanced by her in comparison to the expertsconsistent opinion and the academic matters being specialized courses, which are technical in nature, there should be no interference by the Courts with the evaluation process. PARA 38 & 39 reads as under: "38. We may note that even now many feel that the current pattern of IIT- Joint Entrance Examination, has failed to ensure the selection of best among the aspirants. They feel that that coaching classes have given several candidates of limited ability an edge over others, by training them to answer the multiple choice questions and get through, thereby blocking the chances understanding of of better candidates concepts and with analytical deeper skills required for a course of study at IITs. They also suggest that weightage should be given to class XII marks, in selection to IITs, so that the coaching class culture is discouraged. On the other hand coaching centres contend that the improve the skills of the candidates and make them ready for the undergoing the tough course. There are those who are satisfied with the existing system and those who find several faults with it. All that can be said is that the selection process requires to be upgraded and fine tuned year after year with periodic changes in the process, so that the selection process and examination remain relevant and meaningful. But all aspects connected with the process are technical falling within the purview of the professional experts in charge and the role of the courts is very limited. 39. The procedure adopted in JEE 2006 may not be the best of procedures, nor as sound and effective as the present procedures. In fact the action taken by the appellants in challenging the procedure for JEE 2006, their attempts to bring in transparency in the procedure by various RTI applications, and the debate generated by the several views of experts during the course of the writ proceedings, have helped in making the merit ranking process more transparent and accurate. IITs and the candidates who now participate in the examinations must, to a certain extent, thank the appellants for their effort in bringing such transparency and accuracy in the ranking procedure. But there is no ground for that Courts to interfere with the procedure, even if it was not accurate or efficient, in the absence of malafides or arbitrariness or violation of law. It is true that if in JEE 2006, a different or better process had been adopted, or the process now in vogue had been adopted, the results would have been different and the first appellant might have obtained a seat. But on that ground it is not possible to impute malafides or arbitrariness, or grant any relief to the first appellant. Therefore, the appellant will have to be satisfied in being one of the many unsung heroes who helped in improving the system." 18. On the merits of the matter with regard to the irregularities respondent in the submits question that paper, there were counsel no for the irregularities. Referring to the question number 56 of the question booklet, it is contended that according to the petitioner instead of option (A), answer should have been option (D). The said question refers to the identification of the tennis player, who turned Hollywood filmmaker recently. According to the petitioner, the correct answer is Ashok Amritraj, as he has 100 movies to his credit. Mr.Sethi, learned senior counsel for the respondent contends that the information brochure issued by the CLAT office clearly indicated that "the current affairs (broadly defined as matters featuring in the mainstream media between March, 2011 and March, 2012)". It is thus submitted that the CLAT question paper pertains to examine in reference of the above to ask students to identify the tennis player, who turned into a Hollywood film maker in 2011 or 2012, and thus the latest and correction option is the Vijay Amritraj. Mr.Sethi, also submits that the information brochure clearly shows that the different subject areas of the exam include General Knowledge/ Current Affairs, which are two separate heads; and there can be no change to the questions relating to General Knowledge, and Current Affairs are bound to be current. Clause 2 of the Information Booklet reads as under: "General Knowledge / Current Affairs This section will only test students on their knowledge of current affairs (broadly defined as matters featuring in the mainstream media between March, 2011 and March, 2012)." 19. Same explanation has been rendered by learned senior counsel for respondent with regard to question no.86 as to Priyanka Chopra being the National Ambassador of which organization. Mr.Sethi, contends that Priyanka Chopra was the National Ambassador of UNICEF earlier, but currently she is the National Ambassador of UNESCO. 20. In the counter affidavit explanations have been rendered with regard to questions in category No.2 and category no.3. With regard to category no.2, it has been denied that the questions are incomplete or there is deviation in syllabus or that they pre-suppose deep knowledge of law of the candidate. Mr.Sethi, has clarified that a candidate, who aspires to study law from the premier law Institution of the country would know some of the broad terms, which are commonly used in day-to-day affairs of life. Thus terms do not require in-depth knowledge of law and thus the allegations of the petitioner cannot be sustained according to the respondent. Mr.Sethi has also submitted that CLAT is a competitive entrance test different from a qualifying examination. The term "syllabus" is known in qualifying examination and not in competitive test. It goes beyond the subject knowledge gained from different Central and State Board syllabus, and the entire purpose is to find a comparative merit to study in National Law Schools. Accordingly, the Core Committee provided pattern of a 200 marks divided in 5 sections i.e. (i) English including Comprehension (ii) General Knowledge/ Current Affairs; (iii) Elementary Mathematics and Numerical Ability; (iv) Legal Aptitude; and (v) Logical reasoning. Even otherwise, it is submitted that the present petition is without any merit, as the cut-off marks in the General category is 1354 and the petitioner stands in All India Rank at 2719. Even if the petitioner"s case is considered foradmission at bottom at NLUJA Assam, even then there are 1365 candidates above her. 21. In response to the submissions made by Mr.Sethi, counsel for the petitioner in rejoinder has submitted that even in case the admission process has come to an end, as is contended by Mr.Sethi, the court is not powerless and the court can direct respondent to create a seat in favour of the petitioner. In support of this contention, Mr.Handoo, has placed reliance on a judgment rendered in the case Miss Harleen K. Bains Vs. The University of Delhi & Anr. [WP(C)No.5015/2010 decided on 17.08.2010] where a Single Judge of this court has directed the college to create an addition seat for the petitioner. 22. Mr.Handoo, has also refuted the submissions of Mr.Sethi, that there was no real syllabus prescribed, as the MOU itself talks about the syllabus. Strong reliance has been placed by Mr.Handoo, on a decision rendered by the Division Bench of this court in the case Gunjan Sinha Jain Vs. Registrar General, High Court of Delhi [WP(C)No.449/2012 decided on 09.04.2012], to buttress his argument that in the aforesaid matter the court had come to the conclusion that some of the answers, to the question paper set in the matter, shown in the Key answers, were found to be incorrect; the questions were out of syllabus and answer in the key answer were debatable; question where there were more than one correct option etc., and had directed re-valuation to be carried out. Thus it is contended that the explanation rendered in the writ petition with regard to some of the questions being incorrect or out of syllabus, the same option should be followed by this court in the present matter. 23. I have heard learned counsel for the parties and given my thoughtful consideration to the matter. With regard to the questions relating to Category I (questions wrongly answered), it may be noticed that according to the petitioner six questions were wrongly answered in the Model Answer Key as provided by the respondents. The questions have been extracted in para 11 of the petition. According to the petition, the correct answer to question 56 is (D) and not (A), as suggested by the answer key. In the counter affidavit an explanation has been rendered by the respondents that the stand of the petitioner that correct answer is Ashok Amrit Raj is incorrect as this question pertains to the current affairs and the Tennis player, who has turned into a Hollywood film maker is Vijay Amrit Raj. The latest position is that Vijay Amrit Raj along with Mr.Matty Beckerman, as Executive Producers, are producing a move called ,,Bleeder" as announced by the Hyde International Park. In this move Mike Tollin and Carl Hampe are working as producers. The movie is a boxing drama. The submission made by counsel for the petitioner with regard to Category No.1 questions, is thus unacceptable. The respondents have given the explanation and the correct answers with regard to the questions relating to Category No.1. There is force in the submission made, as the question is to be answered as on the date when the question was asked. The questions relating to Category No.2, i.e. question No.56 and 86, also relate to the current affairs, and thus, it cannot be said that the answers to this questions were wrong. According to the petitioner, questions in the Category No.2 ,,legal aptitude" which have been asked by the respondents, are beyond the syllabus and are incomplete in nature, nor did they provide the principle on the basis of which the question is supposed to be solved; more so, such questions pre- supposes a deep knowledge of law, which is not the purpose of this examination. The question no.186 which is extracted in the petition, is reproduced below: "QUESTION NO.186: X, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him as his housekeeper. In return, B agreed to pay X Rs.500 per month for living in adultery and Rs.500 per month for housekeeping. The agreement is : (A) Valid (B) Void (C) Void as to the first object but valid with respect to the second object. (D) Unlawful as being opposed to public policy. 24. According to the petitioner, the correct option could be option (C) instead of option (D). The petitioner has sought illustration appended to Section 24 of the Indian Contract Act, 1892. The explanation rendered in this behalf by Mr.Sethi, that a valid contract consideration and object both must be legal then only that agreement can be considered to be valid as per the Indian Contract Act. Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 lays down that the consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful if it is forbidden by law or would defeat the provision of law, or would involve injury to the person or property of another, or the court considers it immoral or opposed to public policy. When the consideration or object is unlawful, the agreement is void. Thus, as per common sense, good understanding and ultimately keeping in mind Section 23 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 the correct answer to the above question will be option ,,D" only and not as suggested by the petitioner. In view thereof, Mr.Sethi, submits that the suggestion of the petitioner is not sustainable and liable to be rejected as well. 25. I find no infirmity in the explanation rendered by the respondent, and thus it cannot be said that the respondent has asked questions which are incomplete in nature or they did not provide the principles on the basis of which the question is supposed to be solved or pre-supposes that a child would have deep knowledge of law, especially in view of the nature of examination for the top national law schools of the country. It is expected that the candidates would know some of the broad terms which are commonly used in the day-to-day affairs of life. As far as the Category No.3 is concerned, it is the case of the petitioner that the respondents did not confine themselves to the syllabus, as there were several questions which neither related to current affairs nor did they fall in the period from March, 2011 to March, 2012, but were spread over fields of Science, Geography and History. Such questions have been extracted in the petition. Question 52 reads as under: QUESTION 52 which is the largest gland in the human body. (A) Pancreas (B) Liver (C) Thyroid (D) Pituitary 26. In my view the petitioner has misread Clause 2 of the Admission Booklet. As per Clause 2 a student is to be tested for General Knowledge and Current Affairs. The Current Affair has been defined as ,,matters featuring in the main stream media between March, 2011, to March, 2012". The questions like whose teaching inspired the French Revolution? (Q 43); which is the largest gland in human body? (Q 52); which strait separates Europe from Africa? (Q 54); Taiwan was earlier known as (Q 55); and such other questions, pertain to General Knowledge. The largest gland in the body is likely to remain the same in the year 2011-2012 or which strait separates Europe from Africa during the period 2011-2012 remains the same as twenty years back. So these clearly fall in the category of General Knowledge. The questions with regard to Ajay Amrit Raj and Vijay Amrit Raj or Priyanka Chopra would fall in the second category i.e. Current Affairs. Thus it cannot be said that these questions were out of syllabus. 27. The Court has also perused the answers and the reasoning given by the respondents in the counter affidavit. The explanation, which is rendered is more than satisfactory and requires no interference. There is force in the submission made by Mr.Sethi while placing reliance on the decision rendered by the Apex Court in the case of Sachit Bansal (supra) that the Court should not interfere with the procedure even if it was not accurate or efficient in the absence of mala fide or arbitrariness. 28. In the facts of the present case, it cannot be said that the procedure was not accurate or efficient. As per the counter affidavit almost all the Law Schools are headed by the Hon"ble Chief Justices of India as Visitor and the Hon"ble Chief Justices of the respective High Courts as Chancellors. The Hon"ble Chief Justices of India and the Visitor convened a meeting of the Vice Chancellors of the seven Law Schools in the year 2007 wherein it was agreed between all the Law Universities that there would be a Common Law Admission Test for all the Law Schools. A MOU was entered into between the seven Law Schools in the presence of the representative of the Ministry of Human Resource, ViceChairman of the University Grants Commission and the Chairman of the Bar Council of India. The Memorandum of Understanding provided that there should be a Committee known as Core Committee for the purpose of describing and providing all the policies in respect of CLAT. All the ViceChancellors of existing 14 National Law Schools are Members of the Core Committee. Besides an Implementation Committee has been formed consisting of all the Registrars of 14 National Law Schools. A procedure has been defined for conducting the CLAT examination. 29. It is not for this Court to sit over the wisdom of such a Committee. The representations made by the petitioner and such other candidates were also referred to a Committee of three experts appointed by the Convener, which has found the question paper and the key absolutely in order. The Committee has recorded the reasons for the conclusions arrived at by them and thus the Court has no reason to take another view in this matter. 30. The present petition can also not be entertained for the reasons that the successful candidates were asked to deposit their fee on or before 9.6.2012. The entire exercise of carrying out admissions has lasted for four rounds as per the notifications dated 28.5.2012, 12.6.2012, 21.6.2012 and 30.6.2012. At this stage CLAT has nothing to do with the admission process and it is now between the students and the concerned National Law Schools. Thus, no interference can be made with the admission process by revising the result or quashing the entire examination process. The petition is also liable to be rejected on the ground of nonjoinder of party. It has been held that all the candidates, who had participated in the exam, should be impleaded as a party otherwise they would be affected without being heard as held in K.H. Seraj v. High Court of Kerala, reported at 2006 (6) SCC 395; Bhagwanti v. Subordinate Services Selection Board, Haryana, reported at 1995 Suppl. (2) SCC 663; Ishwar Singh v. Kuldeep Singh, reported at 1995 Suppl. (1) SCC 179; and State of Kerala v. W.I. Services & Estates Limited and Others, reported at (1998) 5 SCC 583. The petition cannot also be entertained in view of the fact that this court has come to the conclusion that the questions were not wrongly answered in the book-let nor the questions were incomplete in nature. The questions asked did not pre-suppose a deep knowledge of law, neither the questions were beyond the syllabus. 31. In view of above, writ petition and application are dismissed with no order as to costs. G.S.SISTANI, J JULY 31, 2012 ANNEXURE P-23 Court No. - 38 Case :- WRIT - C No. - 32024 of 2015 Petitioner :- Aditya Dua & 10 Others Respondent :- Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia National Law University & 4 Others Counsel for Petitioner :- Manish Goyal Hon'ble Yashwant Varma,J. The challenge in the present petition is raised to the results declared by CLAT, 2015. Upon an urgent mention made that today was the last date of counseling, this petition was called. This Court has heard Sri Manish Goyal, learned counsel in support of this petition who has raised certain legal and factual aspects of the matter. Sri Goyal has pointed out that the girl candidate who has secured a State Rank of 51 is shown to have obtained a State Women Ranking of 105. He has further invited the attention of the Court to the material to establish that a person who scored 26.25 marks was given an All India ranking of 4539 while another candidate with a similar CLAT score was given an All India Rank of 25073. He further submits that there are serious allegations of malafide against the respondent nos. 4 and 5 who appear to have been the only institutes informed of the fact that the examination would be online examination. There are also serious allegations against the said respondents as carried in paragraphs 33 and 34 of the writ petition, thus a large number of students from these Institutes alone have secured very high marks. Sri Goyal has also submitted that as per the Brochure result was to be published on the website carrying over all merit list of declared candidates along with their categories. He submits that the same has not been done and published by the organizing University till date. The matter requires consideration. Issue notice to respondent nos. 1 to 5 returnable within four weeks. Post this matter on 9.7.2015. Notices issued to the respondents shall indicate that this matter shall be called on the said date. In the meanwhile, the respondent no. 1 shall proceed to publish the results in accordance with the provisions of Brochure as appearing at page 38 of the paper book or show cause to this Court on or before the said date. Order Date :- 25.5.2015 Rmk. ANNEXURE P-24 WP-9216-2015 (TANYA PRADHAN Vs NATIONAL LAW INSTITUTE UNEVERSITY) 26-06-2015 Shri R.N. Singh, learned Senior Advocate with Shri Manikant Sharma, learned counsel for the petitioner. Shri Sankalp Kochar, learned counsel for the respondent No.1 University. Heard on I.A. No 6177/2015 an application filed by the respondent No. 1 University for vacation of stay granted by this Court. Having heard learned counsel for the parties, we find that in the process of admission through CLAT-2015, 26 seats were allocated to NLUI, Bhopal to order unreserved category for the candidates who were of domicile of the State of M.P. As per the admission brochure issued by the National Law Institute University, Bhopal vide Annesxure A-1 to I.A. No. 6177/2015 and circulated at the time of admission, these 26 seats were to be filled up by horizontal reservation. It seems that the examining authority, namely the RMLNLU, Lucknow, while calculating the allocation of these 26 seats followed a principle of vertical reservation as the consequences thereof the petitioner were allotted seats in the National Law University Institute at Bhopal. While doing so the apparent error was committed in as much as candidates more meritorious than the petitioner under the all India Merit List were deprived of their right to admission in an institute, upper in rank and they were allotted to a different institute. This was a mistake committed and could be corrected. Even though the National Law University Institute at Bhopal permitted the petitioner to deposit their provisional fees but immediately brought the mistake to the notice of the RMLNLU, Lucknow and therefore now the correction has been made, the allotment list has been redrawn after following the system of horizontal reservation for allotment of 26 seats in the category of unreserved candidates who are domicile of the State of M.P. As a consequence thereof, the petitioner has been allotted seats in various other national law university. Prima facie on going through the reasons given by the respondent in the application for vacation of stay, we find that this is a case where the initial allotment done and the allocation of seats to the petitioner in National Law Institute University, Bhopal was a mistake committed and when such a mistake was pointed out the same has been corrected and the petitioners are being granted admission in a different university as per their merit on the All India rank list. That being position no case is made out for continuing with the stay. Accordingly we vacate the stay granted by this Court. At the same time we are informed that tomorrow is the last date for deposit of fees and reporting for admission to the institutes to which a candidate has been called seat question and as the petitioners have been allotted the seats in different National Law University out of the state of MP they are granted 7 days' time to report to the said University where now they have been granted admission and the university to which the petitioners are granted admission is directed to permit the petitioner to join on the seats allotted to them in the respective universities, if they report to the said University on or before 6th of July,2015, till 6th of July, 2015 seats allotted to the petitioners after correction of their allotment i.e., preparation of the amended list shall not be filled up by the University concerned. The universities concerned are granted liberty to make admission of students as per the amended allotment list. We are constrained to pass an order, granting time up 6th of July, 2015 to the petitioners to seek admission because they are entitled for the admission as per the amended allotted list and by virtue of the interim order passed by this Court, their right to seek admission in the changed institutes should not be adversely effect and as they are required to report to the institute tomorrow, and it may not be possible for their report for admission by tomorrow, therefore, they are granting time up to 6 th of July, 2015. With the aforesaid I.A. No 6177/2015 stands allowed and disposed of. Certi?ed copy today (RAJENDRA MENON) (VANDANA KASREKAR) JUDGE ANNEXURE P-25 PARTICULARS 2009-10 2008-09 2007-08 (Audite (Audited (Audited d) ) ) Income .. .. .. .. CLAT Examination 17,99,08 17,44,71 0 Share Income .. 5 .. 3 .. .. Educational Fees ANNEXURE P-26 Legally India, June 4, 2015 These 30 out of 200 official answers in CLATaclysm 2015 may be wrong, say 2 experts & group of students. So, what now? By Kian Ganz Three independent parties with interests in the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2015 have gone through the CLAT paper with a fine toothcomb, trying to figure out which questions could be wrong. As first reported by Legally India on Tuesday, the CLAT answer key contained a number of obvious errors, with the CLAT committee delaying the final results to re-examine the answer sheets. Group of students A group of students, who preferred to be anonymous, have compiled a list of 17 questions that they think are wrong. We have published this below. Question 2 The answer for the question has to be (c) [ABBBA] instead of (a) [BABBA] for the following two reasons: 1. In the second statement, the word "censured" would be used instead of "censored" because critics does not have an authority to censor the movie, they can only criticize (censure) it. 2. In the fourth statement, the word "broach" would be used instead of "brooch". Broach means to talk about a subject which is difficult to discuss because it is embarrassing Brooch means a decorative pin worn by women Therefore, the because the second statement and the fourth statement will be B and B respectively, the only possible answer could be (c) i.e. ABBBA Question 23 Options (a), (b) and (c) are eliminator as they do not contain 'no telling', hence the sentence cannot continue. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. Question 25 Dulcet means melodious whereas Raucous means Harsh. Therefore, they are antonyms. The correct answer should be both (c) and (d) as in both the options the words are antonyms to each other. Palliative and Exacerbating are antonyms. Theory and Practical are also antonyms. Question 35 The answer should be (b) i.e. discouragement of imports as it is clearly mention in the first line of the third paragraph. Question 36 The answer should be (d). As no Indian cars are sold abroad, therefore the performance is worse than poor and it is equivalent to disrepute, therefore answer (d). Question 60 Kathak will also be the right answer as it is also one of those dance which was essentially performed solo (e.g. Birju Maharaj) and now it is performed in group as well. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Institute_of_Kathak_Dan ce Massey, Reginald (2004). India's dances: their history, technique, and repertoire. Abhinav Publications. ISBN 817017-434-1. Question 111 The answer will be [(b) Ramu cannot be prosecuted for theft] because tree is an immovable property and when it became a movable property by cutting it down, it was never moved after that which is a prime requirement of the principle. Question 113 The answer will be [(a) Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he entered into the contract]. It is clearly mentioned in the facts of the case that Mr. X enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he is of unsound mind. No question of burden of proof will arise as nothing like that is mentioned in the principle Question 114 The answer will be [(c) It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent]. Option (b) would be incorrect because nothing like "invitation to offer" is mentioned in the principle. The word "willingness" is mentioned in the principle which makes (c) a much better option than (b). Question 124 Here, the answer would be clearly [(c) Pawan is not liable because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other than Jeevan]. It is clearly mentioned in the principle, "The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation". In the present question, Jeevan is not a reasonable person because the facts clearly mention that he "could not put up with any kind of continuous noise". It was only Jeevan who was being disturbed by the typing noise which clearly indicates that the enjoyment envisaged by Pawan is normal and a reasonable one. Question 128 The answer would be [(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation of A] because both the Assertion and Reason are statements given by famous jurists namely Ihering and Bentham respectively. However, it is obvious that with greater happiness to greater number, social control will be the natural outcome and viceversa. Question 134 The answer would be clear [(d) A is false but R is true]. The line is direct pick-up from the Preamble which clearly mentions that "We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic". Here in the assertion, only the last two words "Democratic Republic" are mentioned, therefore the answer would be (d). Question 136 The answer would be [(b) She is guilty of attempt to commit suicide]. It is clearly mentioned in the definition of attempt as given in the question, "If the actual transaction has commenced which would have ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is clearly an attempt to commit the crime." Here as Rani started running, the actually transaction has commenced which would have ended in suicide if not interrupted. Questions 161-168 Question 166 As per the table drawn above, the price of all the things remaining with the four persons would amount to (4900 + 1500 + 2700 + 2700) which is equal to 11800, therefore answer would be (b) Question 167 Clearly as per the table, the answer would be (b) Record Player Question 182 In statement 'B' word "wealth" is mentioned instead of "health", therefore none of the options would be correct. Question 186 The options (c) and (d) in the question are exactly the same. Moreover, if this is the question where CLAT authorities have given "Marks for All", then also it is grave injustice for those students who have correctly solved the question and marked it as (c) or (d) have the same advantage as compared to those students who weren't able to solve the question or those who have solved it incorrectly. Therefore, 1 mark should only be given to those students who have marked it as (c) or (d). IMS CLAT mentor Rajneesh Singh Below a rough collection of Singh's notes on wrong question. He says that there are at least 24 wrong or misleading questions. CLAT 2015 confirmed list of 24 wrong answers (excluding legal) ? English - 8 errors ? GK - 1 error ? LR - 15 LA section is not final. some of them may not have errors. I have posted the opinions of different people on each question Legal - 9 (open for discussion) CLAT 2015 - Confirmed wrong answers Question number 2 The answer is incorrect. For the second sentence the correct option is censured and not censored. The learned paper setter should have known that critics censure and not censor. This makes the official answer to question 2 incorrect Question number 6 The 2nd statement - "Beyond all reason" is a phrase not beyond all reasons. So, option B is also incorrect. While sentence C is wrong, sentence B is also incorrect. The plural 'reasons' at the end of the given sentence is an improper usage. The proper sentence should be, "Your stand is beyond all reason". In sentence D, the word business is used as an uncountable noun. There are no grammatical errors in that sentence. The correct answer should be option C. Question number 10 Correct Answer should be 4, instead of 3. Question number 22 Q22 is wrong as BUT or though has to be part of the right answer Question number 23 The answer should be option d. The question was copied from CAT 1997. Question number 25 The answer is incorrect. The analogy given is Dulcet: Raucous. The relationship between the two is clearly antonymous in nature. One needed to go for a pair showing a similar relationship. The correct answer is option C. Question number 35 The answer for question 35 is definitely wrong. The official answer is option D - discouragement of exports. This is wrong. Nowhere does the author in the passage talk about the government discouraging exports. The passage talks about the government discouraging imports. This means option B should be the correct option: discouragement of imports. Question number 36: A question mark As per the answer key its answer is (B) but it is more likely to be (D) because while Korean Cielos are sold in India, no Indian cars are sold abroad which shows India's disrepute in the international market and not its poor performance in context of the passage. Question number 56 Which is the largest online shop is debatable and unclear. Question should be cancelled. (see RT, Business Insider, and Forbes) Question number 113 The question and options are confusing. Still the best answer is option A and not C. It is a well settled legal principle that the burden of proof always rests with the party instituting the suit unless the contrary is mandated by law. Moreover, given the set of facts that clearly state that Mr. X was usually of sound mind, which further presses upon the fact that deviation from usual mental state need be proven by the other party and not Mr. X. According to the principle, a person cannot enter into a contract if he was of unsound mind at the time. There is no mention of the concept of burden of proof in the principle. Applying the principle, A is the correct answer. Question number 114 The answer should be C instead of B Question number 115 In order to answer this question, the ambit of 'course of employment' need be understood. Here, course of employment refers only to dropping the customer and coming back. It is true that the accident has taken place when the driver was coming back, and thus it is within the course of employment; but dropping Ruhina safely was never within the course of employment and hence the employer firm is not liable. "Acting in the course of employment" means the worker acting at his or her employer's direction or in the furtherance of his or her employer's business. This is the currently accepted legal definition. Picking up his fiancee was not in the course of his employment. If he had gone on a murder spree while driving back, it would not be considered to be in the course of employment and the company would not be responsible. Likewise, there is no liability here. "One day, the Manager asked him to drop a customer at the airport and get back at the earliest". Moreover, there was a clear instruction for a speedy return without any other delays. Considering these, option B is the most appropriate. Question number 116 Answer should be B. Reason: In this question the shopkeeper was doing legal work and it was a case of necessity. If the queue gets long, that's not his problem. And it definitely doesn't amount to nuisance. Essentials Of Public Nuisance : ? Wrongful Act. ? Injury or loss caused by such act to another. ? Unlawful Interference. In the given facts of question 116 none of the essentials are fulfilled. In CLAT 2013 same question was given and the answer was B. The principle clearly states that the interference has to be unlawful, and in the instant case; the interference is not unlawful because the defendant has committed no wrong. The act alleged of causing nuisance is that of the customers and cannot be attributed to the shopkeeper. In this case, the answer (A) does not seem to be correct at all. The answer should be (B) i.e. not liable. Going by the principle, the defendant can't be made liable for nuisance. There was 'unlawful interference'. Question number 117 Answer should be B. Please get some legal knowledge before publishing answers. In question no. 117, It is nowhere mentioned that he is of unsound mind so if definitely amounts to murder. Answer will be B. Please read section 300 of IPC. There is no express statement that 'A' is unsound of mind. If his sanity is determined by the fact that he threw an infant into the well, the facts should have been clearer. There are records of nine week old babies learning to swim. The three-year-old could have been a proficient swimmer. The question is flawed and marks should be awarded for all candidates. Question number 122 Given principle clearly states that in circumstances when silence is equivalent to speech, there is a duty to speak. In the given set of facts, A is auctioning the horse and it shall be presumed by all the bidders that it is of sound mind if nothing at all is spoken in that regard. The given answer (C) is incorrect. Can recall having read this question elsewhere. There was a duty upon A to tell B about the unsoundness of the horse. He should be held liable for fraud. Hence (a) is the correct answer. The given answer (D) seems to be the most appropriate answer. Because, though Pavan can be made liable, the reasoning given in (A) and other options does not resonate with the principle to the question. Question number 124 They have considered answer (D) correct whereas the correct option should be (C). In fact, the same question appears in previous entrance exams of NLSIU (1996) and NALSAR (1998) and the answer has always been that - one need not consider the delicate nature/special circumstance of a neighbour. We have seem the same fact situation/illustration using the names Kannan/Krishnan and even Jeevan/Pavan in numerous books also, along with Sriram Law Academy and Career Launcher's material. This is the question. PRINCIPLE: "Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation." FACT: Jeevan and Pavan were neighbours in a residential locality. Pavan started a typing class in a part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jeevan who could not put up with any kind of continuous noise. He filed a suit against Pavan. (a) Pavan is liable, because he should not have started typing class in his house (b) Pavan is liable, because as a neighbour, he should have realised Jeevan's delicate nature (c) Pavan is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other than Jeevan (d) None of the above Question No. 124 Answer should be C. Reason: It is a sensible case because no one in the neighbourhood gets disturbed with that sound. Same question was asked in question of NLS 1996 and the answer was C. Question number 136 Answer should be B instead of A This question is highly debatable because it is really difficult to conclude as to whether the act of running towards the well constitutes attempt or preparation. In my view, it is definitely a stage past preparation because she has started running towards the well and is also stating that she is going to jump. Moreover, the explanation is untenable because it is presumed in law that a man is intending what he/she is consciously saying. Reason: She stated that she will jump which fulfills the fault element that is intention. And secondly, She started running towards well which fulfills the conduct element. She was caught before she could have jumped which definitely proves her intention to commit crime of suicide. The actual transaction that would have ended in the crime had commenced and would have succeeded if not for circumstances beyond the control of the person. The commission of the crime failed because she was caught. That was not in her control. Applying the principles, this was an attempt. Question number 137 Answer should be C. Reason: SINY had the knowledge at he was committing an offence which fulfills the fault element and he also proceeded towards committing the offence which fulfills the conduct element. Here, he in commission of offence unknowingly killed MINU which definitely amounts to culpable homicide not amounting to murder as he didn't have any intention to kill him. Questions number 161 to 168 The data is confusing. This makes answer of 166 and 168 doubtful. Questions numbers 169 to 173 169-173:The question is picked up from CAT 2003 but coped wrongly. The data given in the table is wrong. For the person "I", the numbers of the blanks answers should be 17, 46, 90 instead of 17, 26, 90. This error must have disturbed many and the set should be cancelled. It is also affecting the answer of 169 directly. Question number 182 In this question, in statement 'B' the word 'wealth' is misspelled and should be written as 'health', otherwise the question is unsolvable. If we consider the question with wealth treated as health in statement B, then the correct option should be "D" instead of "A". Question number 184 Wrong answer. B cannot be necessarily concluded from A and C. All Infotech employees may not be knowledge workers. Question number 185 The statement "2" clearly explains that I is a male and he is the brother of B. The mother of I and B is M, who has a sister Q. So clearly, statement 2 says that "I is the nephew of Q. So option 3 should be the correct answer instead of Answer 4. Question number 186 Two options 3 and 4 are the same Question number 187 The answer should be A. The second data is not relevant. Question number 191 The word "FASHION" is a seven-letter word, but the corresponding core has 6 alpha-numericals. Thus, the question is unsolvable. typo error in question - z64t7uw is required Question number 197 Wrong: Ans C. 3 words are formed LAP, PAR and COPY Gautam Puri, head of Career Launcher Puri has compiled what he claims are 30 wrong or dubious answers in his blog, many of which match Singh's above. The ones raised by Puri but not included by Singh above, are: Q30. All choices are incorrect. Answer as per CLAT: Choice (C) foreign change bankruptcy and paucity of funds with the government. There is a typographical error - the word change should be replaced with exchange to get the correct answer. Q37. All choices are incorrect. The passage does not have any reference to "Politicians", it has only talked about the "Government" and to extrapolate Government to all Politicians will be incorrect. The correct answer would have been: Indian government has been myopic in its vision of the country's requirements. If this is ignored and we choose to read Politicians as Policies or treat them equivalent to Government, even then there are two correct options - Choice (A) and Choice (C) Q120. "Special offences" are not defined in the question and hence both Choice (B) and Choice (D) can be correct. Q129. The answer choice by CLAT is incorrect. Both the propositions are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A. Correct answer: Choice (B) Answer as per CLAT: Choice (A) Q129. The answer choice by CLAT is incorrect. Both the propositions are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A. Correct answer: Choice (B) Answer as per CLAT: Choice (A) Q112. This is a question of reasoning and as per the directions Legal Knowledge should not be required for answering the question. Q118. This is a question of reasoning and as per the directions Legal Knowledge should not be required for answering the question. He suggests the following options: I request all students to send a mail to CLAT authorities with the above and asking for corrective action. To make your task easier, a letter to CLAT Convener has been drafted along with the list of errors. Click here to download the letter and send it to helpdesk@clat.ac.in . You should fill in your personal details in the letter along with possible option (given below) that you want the CLAT authorities to take. Considering that the 1st indicative list of the selected students is still not out, you are requested to send the letter as early as possible. Larger the number of candidates writing to CLAT authorities higher is the chances of corrective action hence do ask all your friends who have taken CLAT to also send this mail. The possible options in such a scenario for CLAT authorities are: Option I 1. Eliminate the incorrect questions in Category 1. 2. Rectify the answer key for question in Category 1. 3. Ignore Category 2. 4. Recalculate the scores and award ranks as per the corrected scores. Option II 1. Eliminate the incorrect questions both in Category 1 and Category 2 2. Rectify the answer key for the remaining questions. 3. Recalculate the scores and award ranks as per the corrected scores. Option III: 1. Scrap this CLAT paper because with such a larger number of errors you may not have been able take the test in the right frame of mind. 2. There was also significant loss of time due to the erroneous questions and hence a re-test should be conducted. ANNEXURE P-27 Legally India, June 1, 2014 CLAT 2014 discrepancies candidates complain of 150+ between expected and point confirmed results Dozens, some claim hundreds, of students who took the 2014 Common Law Admissions Test (CLAT) are claiming that there has been a serious error in the marking of their results, demanding to see their optical mark recognition (OMR) answer sheets. One CLAT taker wrote: "I received my CLAT 2014 result tonight. I made 166/200 attempts, and I rechecked my answers with the answer key provided. Yet somehow, I seem to have scored a shocking 15.25/200 in my exam. I find this to be an absolute impossibility unless A. my OMR sheet has been checked wrong, or IB. have mis-marked my entire OMR sheet. "I attempted CLAT 2013 with a rank of [around 1600] and score [of around 110]. It is therefore impossible that I have scored [around 15] marks ONLY. I have already sent a mail tohelpdesk@clat.ac.in, and I have received no reply yet. "It is possible that they have incorrectly marked my omr sheet, as complaints have been reported by a lot of candidates. To clear the confusion in our minds in either case, I request the GNLU CLAT COMMITTEE to PLEASE supply a copy of our OMR sheets so we can see and confirm the mistakes for ourselves." A Facebook group called CLAT 2014 - I want to see my OMR now has nearly 400 members since having been started yesterday. Others on the group have also complained of discrepancies between expected and received marks of between 20 to 100 marks or more. Update: according to a poll, around 100 test takers claimed their results were off significantly, with more than 50 claiming their test scores were 20 or more marks below what they had expected. Some students are now considering filing a public interest litigation against GNLU. The Facebook group was started by CLAT mentor Rajneesh Singh, who had also launched an initiative two weeks ago that the CLAT model answer keys released by convenor GNLU Gandhinagar contained errors. This ultimately resulted in GNLU declaring that two questions did indeed have two correct answers and that either answer would be deemed as the correct one (questions 41 and 131), while three answers on the original answer key were incorrect (questions 12, 76 and 145 all should have D as the correct answer). GNLU director Bimal Patel did not respond to an SMS seeking comment at the time of going to press. ANNEXURE P-28 Legally India, June 10, 2012 Flawed answer key adds to CLATalogue of disasters, candidates join RTI campaign By Prachi Shrivastava Examinees in the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2012 have pointed out at least 10 errors worth 10 marks in the question paper's answer key that was released by the CLAT committee on Friday. The key was released exactly a week after this year's convenor NLU Jodhpur published a reshuffled university allotment list to replace an earlier list that contained errors. "CLAT 2012 has become more like a scam than an exam," fretted a candidate observing that "a lot of students have got marks much lower than expected by them. This has put students in a dilemma whether the OMR checked by the authorities were also done in the same manner as allotment of first university list". According to the answer key, Priyanka Chopra is the Indian national ambassador of UNESCO, whereas she is really the ambassador of UNICEF, while Ashok Amritraj, and not Vijay Amritraj as the key suggested, is the tennis player-turned- filmmaker. A candidate told Legally India that the logical reasoning section contained some questions which were lifted unchanged from preparatory books by MK Pandey and R S Aggarwal. The answer keys displayed incorrect answers for these questions, alleged the candidate. Several CLAT takers said they would file Right to Information (RTI) requests with NLU Jodhpur, and formed a Facebook group organising a "mass RTI campaign" on Sunday afternoon. Around 39 people were members of the group at the time of going to press. "Is it possible that if my marks are found to increase after the formulation of this RTI application I would be upgraded to a University higher in my ranking as per my score?" asked a prospective applicant in his draft RTI application uploaded on the Facebook page of CLAT preparation forum Clathacker. According to the already marked CLAT 2012 answer sheets, as many as 37 candidates secured scores in the range of the top 12 marks, while another 25 scored in the next range of 12 marks. A total of 25,769 aspirants participated in this year's competition for 1,702 undergraduate national law university (NLU) seats. The first criticism surrounding this year's examination process began on the day of the examination (13 May). Unhappy that questions were allegedly inconsistent with the official CLAT syllabus, some candidates vowed to initiate public interest litigations (PIL) against the committee. On 28 May, the result and first university allotment list was released by NLU Jodhpur, but several candidates claimed they were not allotted universities according to their preference, even after securing the requisite cut-off marks. Evidently, NLIU Bhopal - traditionally a lesser preferred law school than NUJS Kolkata, had outranked the Kolkata law school in terms of CLAT preferences depicted in the flawed list. A revised university allotment list was released last week, after NLU Jodhpur vice chancellor NN Mathur admitted that the earlier list contained errors that would be fixed in June. Meanwhile, on 4 June the Delhi high court admitted that the first writ should not have been dismissed, and allowed a letters patent appeal against the CLAT convenor, the Bar Council of India (BCI) and the Human Resource and Development Ministry. The court will look into the issue of a permanent CLAT committee, replacing the present rotational system between the 14 NLUs. List of incorrect answers pointed out by an examinee General Knowledge 1. Identify the Indian Tennis player who has turned Hollywood filmmaker? A) Vijay Amritraj (B) Mahesh Bhupathi (C) Leander Paes (D) Ashok Amritraj Answer according to NLU J Answer key- Vijay Amritraj but correct Answer is Ashok Amritraj. 2. Priyanka Chopra has been named National Ambassador of (A) WHO (B) UNICEF (C)UNESCO (D)International Red Cross Society Ans according to NLU J answer key- UNESCO, but correct answer is UNICEF 3. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) completed how many years of operation in 2011? (A) 3 years (B) 4 years (C) 5 years (D) 6 years Ans according to NLU J Answer key is 6 years, but they have asked how many years in operation in 2011. In 2011 it completed 5 YEARS. Legal aptitude 4.The Right to Equality is guaranteed by(A) Article 14 to 18 (B) Article 14 (C) Article 14 and 15 (D) Article 14, 15 and 16 Answer according to NLU J Ans key is Article 14,15 and 16 but Correct answer is 14 to 18. 5. X went to Y's house and forgot his bag which contained 1 kg sweets. Y's children consumed the sweets. Decide the liability of Y. (A) Y is bound to pay the price of sweets to X (B) Y is not bound to pay anything (C) Y is bound to pay half the price of sweets. (D) Y would not have to pay anything because X loves Y's children. Due to the ambiguous nature of question and no legal principle, two options have the equal opportunity to be right, option A and B. But the CLAT committee has marked only option B as correct. 12. Statements: I. Cheese is bad for people with high-cholesterol. II. Sumeet does not eat cheese. Assuming that (i) and (ii) are true, which of the following statement follows? (A)Sumeet has high-cholesterol. (b)Cheese is bad for Sumeet. (c)People with high-Cholesterol do not eat cheese. (d)None of the above Answer given by CLAT committee says it be C. But correct answer should be None. LOGICAL REASONING 8. Statement One: All researchers are sociologists Statement Two: Some researchers are professors. Conclusions: I. All researchers are professors. II. Some researchers are professors. III. Some professors are sociologists. IV. Some sociologists are researchers. (A) Only III and II follow. (B) Only II and IV follow. (C) Only III follows. (D) None follows. Answer should be None of the above. Even if i take restatement then also B should not be the answer. But again B was the best option here. 9. Statement: Should students' union in colleges and universities be abolished? Arguments: (i) Yes, it detracts students from academic and career development. (ii) No, all great leaders have been students' union leaders. (A) Argument (i) is strong. (B)Argument (ii) is strong. (C) Both (i) and (ii) are strong. (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong. CLAT Answer- A, But correct Answer is-D. ANNEXURE P-29 The Indian Express, April 28, 2010 Raising the bar By Shamnad Basheer The law minister recently announced that potential aspirants to any of the law schools or colleges in India would be subject to a common entrance examination. Many are likely to question the feasibility of such a pan-India examination and the merits or otherwise of an exclusive entrance exambased approach towards selecting students. The point of this note, however, is to draw the law ministry's attention to an already existing examination administered by an elitist set of law schools that go by the haloed name of "national law schools". For many years, these law schools, widely regarded as the premier legal institutions in the country, held their own examinations to test potential students on their aptitude for the study of law. Pursuant to a petition that challenged the inconvenience occasioned to students from the conduct of multiple law entrances by the various law schools, the Supreme Court mandated the institution of a joint entrance exam. And thus was born CLAT or the Common Law Admission Test, currently administered by a club of 11 national law schools. However, despite the trappings of a common entrance, the responsibility for conducting exams each year, particularly the setting of the question paper, lay primarily with an individual law school (decided by rotation each year). Indeed, the incumbent law school had almost unfettered discretion in determining the quality and content of the paper, sans any external review. In 2009, it was abruptly decided that "legal reasoning" would be dropped from the ambit of the CLAT paper. This jawdropping initiative by NALSAR, a Hyderabad-based law school, turns the concept of a legal entrance exam on its head. Wouldn't "legal reasoning" be the most important test of legal aptitude and potential for study at a law school? Interestingly however, the paper that year had a separate section on "legal knowledge" testing candidates on their specific knowledge of court cases and legal doctrines. This section constituted 25 per cent of the total marks! One wonders why law aspirants ought to come pre-loaded with the knowledge of the law. Shouldn't they be tested instead for analytical abilities and legal aptitude, that is, a potential for the study of law? By testing prior knowledge of the law, CLAT 2009 may have admitted students adept at cramming copious amounts of legal maxims in expensive coaching centres, but not necessarily those with demonstrable legal aptitude. Most problematically candidate's prior perhaps, knowledge an exam of the that law tests ends a up disadvantaging certain sections of society that may not have ready access to such sources of knowledge. One is not suggesting that the standard of the exam be lowered to cater to such entrants, but merely that the nature of questions bear a rational nexus to one's intrinsic potential for the study of law, without in any way discriminating against those from certain strata of society that are not "culturally" exposed to certain kinds of knowledge. Illustratively, a student may be stumped by a question that assumes prior knowledge of "hole in one", a golfing term likely to be most familiar to the urban elite. Apart from a worrying lack of consistency and external review, the current CLAT process exacerbates existing inequities. For one, the cost of a CLAT application is Rs 2,500 for all students, with no concessions in favour of poor students. Given that the CLAT process is likely to have yielded more than Rs 4 crore last year, reducing these fees will not seriously bankrupt the CLAT collegium. Second, copies of past exams are only available at the law schools for a fee. In this day and age of open access, one wonders why such papers are not available for free download on the CLAT website. Third, CLAT has no documented policy on access to disabled students, despite the promise of 3 per cent reservations at most law schools for this sector. And last, CLAT does not make any concession to those from vernacular-medium schools who may be blessed with exceptional legal aptitude but cannot compete on a level playing field with those educated in English-medium schools. A current initiative of which I am part seeks to redress this "access" issue to some extent. At its very core, the IDIA (Increasing Diversity by Increasing Access to Legal Education) project seeks to find ways to reach out to hitherto under-represented groups, sensitise them to law as a career option and help those interested in acquiring admission to these law schools by imparting intensive CLAT training, including English training. One hopes that the law ministry will give some serious consideration to this "access" issue, as they set about conceptualising students for an the optimal study of model a to screen socially potential transformative instrument called "law". ANNEXURE P-30 Legally India, June 7, 2015 Angry CLATers open letter: 135 out of 150 questions plagiarised, but managed to get 20 answers wrong, allege bias By Kian Ganz This is in continuation of the previous open letter written by us. After we pointed out 22 genuine errors in the question paper, the CLAT authorities with-held the result and appointed an expert committee to look upon the errors. We were a bit hopeful about the same. Now, when the new result has been published, the CLAT authorities have proved their insincerity and have shown that they have conducted an All India Level examination with a lackadaisical attitude. On 4th June, Professor Gurdip Singh Bahari (Convenor, CLAT Core Committee) stated on National Television, "Questions were set by experts and thereafter an expert committee of Vice Chancellors of four National Law Universities moderated the question paper. All precautions, all care was taken to assure that the question paper is free of all errors" [Editor's note: The interview referred to is the following on India Today TV:https://www.facebook.com/RSCMforCLAT/posts/91203265 888028] Professor Gurdip Singh wrongly used the word 'set'. He should have used the word 'copied'. We looked into four major sections of CLAT 2015 Question paper, namely English, General Knowledge, Maths and Logical Reasoning and shockingly, 135 out of 150 questions were exactly copied from one source or the other. It is important to note here that not only the questions were copied as it is but also the options were copied in the same order. The proof the same is attached herewith as Annexure 1. It is also relevant to note here that the following was the break-up of the no. of questions which were exactly copied in these four sections are? English- 36 out of 40 ? GK- 43 out of 50 ? Maths- 18 out of 20 ? Logical- 38 out of 40 The remaining 15 questions are supposedly original. The CLAT Authorities defended themselves by giving a lame reason saying, "That since everything now is in public domain. There is hardly any Question Bank available and therefore the paper setters are finding it difficult to come up with innovative new questions." The statement was given by a member of CLAT Core Committee, Professor Faizan Mustafa (VC of NALSAR) It is also very important to note here, that even question no. 186, where options (c) and (d) were the same was copied as it is from the following website which also had the exactly same error of same options (c) and (d). http://infomind.in/reasoning/blood-relation This shows us the 'expertness' of the so called expert committee which made the question paper, rather copied the question paper from different sources. It is also very important to note here that in GK section, 43 out of 50 questions were exactly copied (along with the options in the same order) from some source or the other. And shockingly, 27 of them were from only one source i.e. 2 months GK ofwww.gktoday.in [Editor's note: This website is based in Jaipur, Rajasthan]. The website gives 10 questions of Current GK on a two day basis and gave around 300 questions in the months of February and March 2015. And out of these 300 questions, shockingly 27 questions came in CLAT 2015 (i.e. almost 15% of the paper from one source). This completely shows that it must only be done to give special advantage to the students of some coaching [...], who were already told about the same [Editor's Note: Legally India could not independently verify this allegation]. This is the major reason of a lot of students getting selected in Top NLUs this year from the city of [...] [Editor's Note: Legally India could not independently verify this allegation]. This was also accepted by Professor Faizan Mustafa, (VC of NALSAR and Member of CLAT Core Committee), who stated that, "This is a sheer coincidence". Recently, Aligarh Muslim University cancelled their Medical Entrance Examination only on the ground that a lot of students form one centre of Kerala got through the entrance test. We have a question to everyone, "Is it possible to have two answers to a particular question in an objective test, where only one option can be an answer?" You would obviously consider it a silly question and your obvious answer would be negative. But shockingly, the members of the CLAT Committee does not think so. In one of the shocking revelations by Professor Faizan Mustafa, "In law, there can be a difference of opinion. In one case, you like to convict a person and I would like to acquit him". How can one have two opinions as far as questions in competitive examinations are concerned? And if there are such questions, then they should be cancelled immediately. Now, when the experts and we students pointed out errors in the question paper in around 25-30 questions, Professor Gurdip Singh Bahari (Convenor of CLAT Core Committee) said, "Even now when we have published the question paper, I received various mails. I again appointed expert committee to find out the authenticity of those mails whether there are real errors in the question paper. The expert committee has given me a finding. In UG paper, there is only one error and the question has been neutralized" 'HAIL CLAT AUTHORITIES' HAIL CLAT AUTHORITIES' 'SHAME RMLNLU' SHAME RMLNLU' This is a matter of shame that the expert committee have neglected those questions whose wrong answers were very obvious even to a layman. Oh yes, I am sorry, this is the same expert committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. NOW THE ONLY WAY THROUGH WHICH JUSTICE CAN HAPPEN TO ALL THE CLAT ASPIRANTS WOULD BE A RETEST WHICH SHOULD ACTUALLY BE SET-UP BY AN 'EXPERT COMMITTEE' AND NOT LIKE THIS 'SO CALLED EXPERT COMMITTEE'. CHALLENGES MADE BY US AND THE VERDICT GIVEN BY THE EXPERT COMMITTEE Question 2 The answer for the question has to be (c) [ABBBA] instead of (a) [BABBA] for the following two reasons: 1. In the second statement, the word "censured" would be used instead of "censored" because critics does not have an authority to censor the movie, they can only criticize (censure) it. 2. In the fourth statement, the word "broach" would be used instead of "brooch". Broach means to talk about a subject which is difficult to discuss because it is embarrassing Brooch means a decorative pin worn by women Therefore, the because the second statement and the fourth statement will be B and B respectively, the only possible answer could be (c) i.e. ABBBA The expert committee have supposedly ignored this question and according to them their answer is correct. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Question 23 Options (a), (b) and (c) are eliminator as they do not contain 'no telling', hence the sentence cannot continue. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. The expert committee have supposedly ignored this question and according to them their answer is correct. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Question 25 Dulcet means melodious whereas Raucous means Harsh. Therefore, they are antonyms. The correct answer should be both (c) and (d) as in both the options the words are antonyms to each other. Palliative and Exacerbating are antonyms. Theory and Practical are also antonyms. The expert committee have supposedly ignored this question and according to them their answer is correct. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Question 35 The answer should be (b) i.e. discouragement of imports as it is clearly mention in the first line of the third paragraph. In this question, the expert committee have showed their so called 'expertise' by calling it a 'typographical error'. We are still wondering of the typographical error, this question can have. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Question 36 The answer should be (d). As no Indian cars are sold abroad, therefore the performance is worse than poor and it is equivalent to disrepute, therefore answer (d). The expert committee have supposedly ignored this question and according to them their answer is correct. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Question 60 Kathak will also be the right answer as it is also one of those dance which BirjuMaharaj) was and essentially now it is performed performed in solo (e.g. group as well.http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Institute_of_Kathak _Dance Massey, Reginald (2004). India's dances: their history, technique, and repertoire.Abhinav Publications.ISBN81-7017434-1. The expert committee have supposedly ignored this question and according to them their answer is correct. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Question 111 The answer will be [(b) Ramu cannot be prosecuted for theft] because tree is an immovable property and when it became a movable property by cutting it down, it was never moved after that which is a prime requirement of the principle. The expert committee have supposedly ignored this question and according to them their answer is correct. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Question 113 The answer will be [(a) Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he entered into the contract]. It is clearly mentioned in the facts of the case that Mr. X enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he is of unsound mind. No question of burden of proof will arise as nothing like that is mentioned in the principle. The expert committee have supposedly ignored this question and according to them their answer is correct. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Question 114 The answer will be [(c) It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent]. Option (b) would be incorrect because nothing like "invitation to offer" is mentioned in the principle. The word "willingness" is mentioned in the principle which makes (c) a much better option than (b). The expert committee have supposedly ignored this question and according to them their answer is correct. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Question 124 Here, the answer would be clearly [(c) Pawan is not liable because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other than Jeevan]. It is clearly mentioned in the principle, "The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation". In the present question, Jeevan is not a reasonable person because the facts clearly mention that he "could not put up with any kind of continuous noise". It was only Jeevan who was being disturbed by the typing noise which clearly indicates that the enjoyment envisaged by Pawan is normal and a reasonable one. The expert committee have supposedly ignored this question and according to them their answer is correct. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Question 128 The answer would be [(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation of A] because both the Assertion and Reason are statements given by famous jurists namely Ihering and Bentham respectively. However, it is obvious that with greater happiness to greater number, social control will be the natural outcome and vice-versa. The expert committee have supposedly ignored this question and according to them their answer is correct. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Question 134 The answer would be clear [(d) A is false but R is true]. The line is direct pick-up from the Preamble which clearly mentions that "We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic". Here in the assertion, only the last two words "Democratic Republic" are mentioned, therefore the answer would be (d). The expert committee have supposedly ignored this question and according to them their answer is correct. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Question 136 The answer would be [(b) She is guilty of attempt to commit suicide]. It is clearly mentioned in the definition of attempt as given in the question, "If the actual transaction has commenced which would have ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is clearly an attempt to commit the crime." Here as Rani started running, the actually transaction has commenced which would have ended in suicide if not interrupted. The expert committee have supposedly ignored this question and according to them their answer is correct. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Questions 161-168 Before W X 1st Camera- 2 Exchang 1500 e Y Z Chessboards- 3 Cricket Bats- Cycle- 1000 500 each 700 each (2100) Walkman-700 2nd Camera- (1000) 3500 Record Player- Total = 1700 2000 Total- 5000 After 1 Cricket Bat- Cycle- 1000 Exchang 700 e Total= 3000 1 Record Chessboard- 2000 Walkman- 700 500 1 2nd Camera- 700 3500 Player- 1 Cricket Bat- Cricket Total = 1500 Total- 4900 Bat- 1st Camera1500 1 Chessboard- Total= 2700 Loss= 1500 Loss = 100 700 500 Total= 2700 Gain = 600 Gain= 1000 Question 166 As per the table drawn above, the price of all the things remaining with the four persons would amount to (4900 + 1500 + 2700 + 2700) which is equal to 11800, therefore answer would be (b) Question 167 Clearly as per the table, the answer would be (b) Record Player This time I am shocked, the so called 'expert committed' defended there answer in this question as well. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. Questions 169 to 173 169-173: The question is picked up from CAT 2003 but copied wrongly. The data given in the table is wrong. For the person "I", the numbers of the blanks answers should be 17, 46, 90 instead of 17, 26, 90. This error must have disturbed many and the set should be cancelled. It is also affecting the answer of 169 directly. The expert committee wrongly copied this puzzle and still they are defending there answers. The committee which has so called "set" the paper is the same who have exactly copied 135 out of 150 questions. HAIL EXPERT COMMITTEE. Annexure 1 ENGLISH Question 1 https://books.google.co.in/books? id=ZZnHm5wXxjAC&pg=SA10-PA15&lpg=SA10PA15&dq=the+further%5BA%5D/farther%5BB %5D+he+pushed+himself,the+more+disillusioned+he+gre w&source=bl&ots=MAFlSD_0Y&sig=6Lt2t4xbNx4gZelc4NMwKDUFzQk&hl=en&s a=X&ei=v1lxVfSIJaKuATTi4HYBw&ved=0CCsQ6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=the %20further%5BA%5D%2Ffarther%5BB%5D%20he %20pushed%20himself%2Cthe%20more%20disillusioned %20he%20grew&f=false Question 2 https://books.google.co.in/books? id=ZZ2qvMHxMgsC&pg=PA155&lpg=PA155&dq=Regrettabl y%5BA%5D/regretfully%5BB %5D&source=bl&ots=I8KiAKAhRn&sig=xEpQAG_i4PjG1OEg2 YTe7HU0oFU&hl=en&sa=X&ei=PlpxVenlFNG9uATgnoLoBQ&v ed=0CDYQ6AEwBA#v=onepage&q=Regrettably%5BA%5D %2Fregretfully%5BB%5D&f=false Question 3 https://books.google.co.in/books?id=Gut7jAsFqsC&pg=PA10&lpg=PA10&dq=the+prisoner %27s+interment%5BA%5D/internment%5BB %5D+came+to+an+end&source=bl&ots=lCVR6gF3sK&sig= d9nc50ywWbpPW1lzxEr1ajbwCAQ&hl=en&sa=X&ei=c1pxVZ HvNov9ugSpj4CYBQ&ved=0CB0Q6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=t he%20prisoner's%20interment%5BA%5D%2Finternment %5BB%5D%20came%20to%20an%20end&f=false Questions 4-6 (Supposedly original) Questions 7-12 http://cat.jumbotests.com/tests/Online-CAT-2004-QuestionPaper-Solutions Questions 13-14 https://books.google.co.in/books? id=maFyKMC0yV8C&pg=SA3-PA29&lpg=SA3PA29&dq=some+decisions+will+be+fairly+obvious%27no+brainers %27&source=bl&ots=o1MoR6ZQsI&sig=oZojQIuUnqyZlqxLb N1HGkMfkUo&hl=en&sa=X&ei=lVZxVbaCII6MuATJxICgCg&v ed=0CB0Q6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=some%20decisions %20will%20be%20fairly%20obvious-'no %20brainers'&f=false Questions 15-19 https://books.google.co.in/books?id=-hr-K31eBP0C&pg=RA1PA155&lpg=RA1PA155&dq=for+the+word+a+contextual+sentence+is+give n.pick+the+word+from+the+alternatives+given+that+is+ most+inappropriate&source=bl&ots=hYtcGFJGKU&sig=ci6K GSgDO0ghPsrr9By8rwx7O4U&hl=en&sa=X&ei=dWpxVefMIIe hugTa3pmgBQ&ved=0CCIQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=for %20the%20word%20a%20contextual%20sentence%20is %20given.pick%20the%20word%20from%20the %20alternatives%20given%20that%20is%20most %20inappropriate&f=false Questions 20-21 https://books.google.co.in/books? id=IDoQpPktS7gC&pg=PA118&lpg=PA118&dq=unreasonabl eness+is+a+tendency+to+do+socially+permissible&source =bl&ots=uGQI4L4Eza&sig=y1xA7XmtFYv2UrCkydCJ4L- FauU&hl=en&sa=X&ei=k1dxVdyYD8P8ugTz_5GYCg&ved=0C CIQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=unreasonableness%20is%20a %20tendency%20to%20do%20socially %20permissible&f=false Question 22 http://mindworkzz.in/cat-1998-question-paper-withsolutions.aspx Question 23 http://gmatclub.com/forum/this-government-has-givensubsidies-to-the-navratnas-but-151318.html Question 24 http://www.fireup.co.in/blog/cat-verbal-ability-questions-andanswers/ Question 25 http://www.entranzz.com/CAT/Verbal%20Ability%20and %20Logical%20Reasoning/Analogies%20Or%20Reverse %20Analogies/107380.html Question 26 http://gradestack.com/Gate-Electronics-/-Choose-the-optionwhich/1-45837-20696-4188-test-wtst Question 27 https://books.google.co.in/books? id=n2I8BAAAQBAJ&pg=PA273&lpg=PA273&dq=peel:peal+a nalogies&source=bl&ots=8rtsvTblV5&sig=wdGTjmXBOyqVCTRXuVUb2BfQdk&hl=en&sa=X&ei=kGtxVb6Y L5KJuASMxYDoCg&ved=0CCwQ6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=pee l%3Apeal%20analogies&f=false Questions 28-37 http://cat.wordpandit.com/rc-passage-40/ Question 38 (Supposedly original synonym) Question 39 https://books.google.co.in/books? id=cpsAUf4q4aMC&pg=PA53&lpg=PA53&dq=SPRY+doubtful +nimble&source=bl&ots=hCyNWsjVXC&sig=j__Xfjuxtsyn8pi hxgr6i0XbeaM&hl=en&sa=X&ei=RnNyVanmEsu-uATv4DYDA&ved=0CCwQ6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=SPRY %20doubtful%20nimble&f=false Question 40 https://books.google.co.in/books? id=ZUQzCKBKv0wC&pg=SA4-PA29&lpg=SA4PA29&dq=FUDGE+to+sweeten+smear+irritate&source=bl& ots=0sLkAVM50Y&sig=82WerDgSZe1qcKfTNcAFLq02HMU&hl =en&sa=X&ei=vnZyVbnWN5OgugSkgYOoBg&ved=0CCMQ6 AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=FUDGE%20to%20sweeten %20smear%20irritate&f=false 36 out of 40 questions in ENGLISH are exactly copied (along with the exact order of options) from some source or the other. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Question 41 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-22-232015/ Question 42 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-22-23- 2015/ Question 43 (Static GK) https://books.google.co.in/books? id=yHt1fd2brZAC&pg=PA255&lpg=PA255&dq=Which+of+th e+following+Acts+formally+introduced+the+principle+of+ elections+for+the+first+time&source=bl&ots=5ua7jO_YkF& sig=S_zB12mL63kPjZlu-E54hSYaSQ&hl=en&sa=X&ei=i7pxVYvtC4eNuATM2YH4CA&ved =0CDIQ6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=Which%20of%20the %20following%20Acts%20formally%20introduced%20the %20principle%20of%20elections%20for%20the%20first %20time&f=false Question 44 (March) http://www.currentaffairs4examz.com/2015/03/currentaffairs-quiz-30-march-2015.html Question 45 (March) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-24-252015/ Question 46 (Supposedly original Static GK) Question 47 (March) https://www.facebook.com/studyiq/posts/106723967663895 0 Question 48 (March) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-31-2015/ Question 49 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-22-232015/ Question 50 (Supposedly original Static GK) Question 51 (March) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-31-2015/ Question 52 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-24-252015/ Question 53 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-24-252015/ Question 54 (March) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-27-28-2015/ Question 55 (Static GK) Question 38 in http://iasstudycenter.blogspot.in/2012/12/geography-test1.html Question 56 (March) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-29-30-2015/ Question 57 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-26-272015/ Question 58 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-26-27- 2015/ Question 59 (March) (Answer given is Alibaba) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-29-30-2015/ Question 60 (Supposedly original Static GK) Question 61 Question 27 inhttp://www.questionpapers.net.in/general_knowledge/quest ions_and_answers/books_and_authors/books_and_authors_co de_GKBA2.html Question 62 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-1-2-2015/ https://www.facebook.com/knwledgezone/posts/7961553537 86303 Question 63 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-26-272015/ Question 64 (Static GK) http://hareeshacademy.com/quiz/?id=147 Question 65 (February) http://www.currentaffairs4examz.com/2015/02/currentaffairs-quiz-8-february-2015.html Question 66 (March) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-27-28-2015/ Question 67 (Supposedly original Static GK) Question 68 (Supposedly original Static GK) Question 69 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-26-272015/ Question 70 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-28-2015/ Question 71 (Supposedly original Static GK) Question 72 (February) http://www.currentaffairs4examz.com/2015/02/currentaffairs-quiz-8-february-2015.html Question 73 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-28-2015/ Question 74 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-28-2015/ Question 75 (Static GK) http://www.gktoday.in/quiz-239-economic-awareness-forbank-examinations/ Question 76 (January) http://www.currentaffairs4examz.com/2015/01/currentaffairs-quiz-15-january-2015.html Question 77 (Supposedly original Current GK of March) Question 78 (March) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-3-2015/ Question 79 (January) http://djboom.in/gk-test/papers/set-01/test/exm Question 80 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-16-172015/ Question 81 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-18-192015/ Question 82 (March) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-27-28-2015/ Question 83 (March) http://www.currentaffairs4examz.com/2015/03/currentaffairs-quiz-19-march-2015.html Question 84 http://currentaffairs.nirdeshak.com/20-top-questions-fromunion-budget-2014-15-presented-by-arun-jaitley/ Question 85 (February) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-february-20-212015/ Question 86 http://currentaffairs.nirdeshak.com/20-top-questions-fromunion-budget-2014-15-presented-by-arun-jaitley/ Question 87 (January) http://djboom.in/gk-test/papers/set-01/GK_Paper06 Question 88 (March) http://www.currentaffairs4examz.com/2015/03/currentaffairs-quiz-30-march-2015.html Question 89 http://currentaffairs.nirdeshak.com/20-top-questions-fromunion-budget-2014-15-presented-by-arun-jaitley/ Question 90 (March) http://www.gktoday.in/gk-current-affairs-march-25-26-2015/ 43 out of 50 questions in GK are exactly copied (along with the exact order of options) from some source or the other. 27 of these questions are exactly copied from one particular website namelywww.gktoday.in These 27 questions are from only two months i.e. February and March. The website published 10 questions for every 2 days. MATHS Question 91-95 Questions 86-90 in www.eenadupratibha.net/.../sbi.../SBI %20PO%20Model%20Paper3.pdf Question 96 (Supposedly an Original Question) Question 97 Question 161 in https://books.google.co.in/books? id=HSwAwcIEuwkC&pg=SA1-PA39&lpg=SA1PA39&dq=The+simplified+value+of+%5B %7B0.111%293&source=bl&ots=JjXhktV7v&sig=HhcgC1DbzpI2WxYz8i_bSSnheqo&hl=en&sa=X &ei=atRyVZ2kAc6eugSb24JQ&ved=0CCoQ6AEwBQ#v=onep age&q=The%20simplified%20value%20of%20%5B %7B0.111)3&f=false Question 98 Question 15 in http://npltech.in/admin/subject.php? topic=Problems%20on%20Numbers&subject=Aptitude Question 99 https://www.facebook.com/mbaguru/posts/10151488648419 209 Question 100 http://gpl4you.com/ask_questions-743-A-man-has-ninefriends-four-boys-and-five-girls-In-how-many-ways-can-heinvite-them-if-there-have Question 101 Question 15 in http://www.lofoya.com/Aptitude-Questions- And-Answers/Algebra/l2p3.htm Question 102 (Supposedly and original question) Question 103 http://www.indiabix.com/aptitude/problems-ontrains/discussion-813 Question 104 http://www.indiabix.com/aptitude/clock/063004 Question 105 https://answers.yahoo.com/question/index? qid=20110419202013AAvrFfi Question 106 http://www.minglebox.com/mba/answer/the-sum-of-all-thenatural-numbers-from-200-to-600-both-inclusive-which-areneither-divisible-by-8-nor Question 107 http://gradestack.com/Complete-CAT-Prep/In-a-tournamentthere/7-3794-3813-19304-37183-sf Question 108 Question 14 in https://books.google.co.in/books?id=-hr- K31eBP0C&pg=PA222&lpg=PA222&dq=If+n%5E2+ %3D+12345678987654321,+what+is+n? &source=bl&ots=hYtcHFFKJT&sig=lzAXeZnRfsFEm1GPMaZJS yl3RfA&hl=en&sa=X&ei=-JyVe2tGZPauQTmy4GQAg&ved=0CDgQ6AEwBA#v=onepage &q=If%20n%5E2%20%3D%2012345678987654321%2C %20what%20is%20n%3F&f=false Question 109 Question 18 in https://books.google.co.in/books? id=R3NKyzlTDJQC&pg=PA87&lpg=PA87&dq=along+a+road +lie+an+odd+number+of+stones+placed+at+intervals+of +10+m. +These+stones+have+to+be+assembled+around+the+mi ddle+stone. +A+person+can+carry+only+one+stone+at+a+time. +A+man+carried+out+the+job+starting+with+the+stone +in+the+middle,+carrying+stones+in+succession, +thereby+covering+a+distance+of+4.8+km.+Then, +the+number+of+stones+is&source=bl&ots=c9eTAgzlb6&s ig=o6yIYvjaQqCyGS9zEfuA2R9M8u0&hl=en&sa=X&ei=ZOVy VfXSGNCbuQSq_oCADA&ved=0CC8Q6AEwAw#v=onepage& q=along%20a%20road%20lie%20an%20odd%20number %20of%20stones%20placed%20at%20intervals%20of %2010%20m.%20These%20stones%20have%20to%20be %20assembled%20around%20the%20middle%20stone. %20A%20person%20can%20carry%20only%20one%20stone %20at%20a%20time.%20A%20man%20carried%20out %20the%20job%20starting%20with%20the%20stone%20in %20the%20middle%2C%20carrying%20stones%20in %20succession%2C%20thereby%20covering%20a %20distance%20of%204.8%20km.%20Then%2C%20the %20number%20of%20stones%20is&f=false Question 110 http://rewavepro.com/question-bank/quant/what-are-the-lasttwo-digits-of-7-2008 18 out of 20 questions in GK are exactly copied (along with the exact order of options) from some source or the other. LOGICAL REASONING Question 161-168 http://www.crazyengineers.com/threads/cooltwins-aptitudecenter.30306/page-11 Question 169-173 http://courses.mbatious.com/prepproblem/logical-reasoning0030 Question 174-178 https://books.google.co.in/books? id=mYaiBQAAQBAJ&pg=PA349&lpg=PA349&dq=in+the+foll owing+question, +a+group+of+numerals+is+given+followed+by+four+grou ps+of+symbols&source=bl&ots=4SIub7dppI&sig=lOpT9a4h bJHUpwNTcTRGo7EjlI&hl=en&sa=X&ei=Hl9xVYTdIMa1uQSZuoHQCQ &ved=0CCMQ6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=in%20the %20following%20question%2C%20a%20group%20of %20numerals%20is%20given%20followed%20by%20four %20groups%20of%20symbols&f=false Question 179-181 http://www.pappulal.com/practice-papers/cat/cat-practicepaper-1.html Question 182 http://www.entranzz.com/CAT/Quantitative%20Ability%20and %20Data%20Interpretation/Arrangements%20And %20Conditions/29211.html Question 183 https://books.google.co.in/books? id=wtDGMIej7swC&pg=PA120&lpg=PA120&dq=MBAs+are+i n+great+demand+CAT&source=bl&ots=gQgSMpsV1&sig=WSamocpcFcPH1NeAR3kOIuxU3aQ&hl=en&sa =X&ei=E2FxVcq_D5DluQSn5oCgAg&ved=0CCYQ6AEwAg#v =onepage&q=MBAs%20are%20in%20great%20demand %20CAT&f=false Question no 184 http://www.entranzz.com/CAT/Quantitative%20Ability%20and %20Data%20Interpretation/Arrangements%20And %20Conditions/29202.html Question 185-186 Question 13 and 15 in http://infomind.in/reasoning/bloodrelation Question no 187-189 https://books.google.co.in/books?id=4Y1vzt5LSPIC&pg=RA1PA215&lpg=RA1PA215&dq=can+a+democratic+system+operate+without+ an+effective+opposition&source=bl&ots=QEJDn0EYQ0&sig =9oUWiagV7fmh_DqTBQAAAyGPWUo&hl=en&sa=X&ei=GFxVc6LGIq_uAT_mICYBQ&ved=0CDEQ6AEwAw#v=onepage &q=can%20a%20democratic%20system%20operate %20without%20an%20effective%20opposition&f=false Question 190-192 http://competension.com/reasoning-ability-coding-decoding/ Question no 193-194 http://infomind.in/reasoning/syllogism Questions 195-196 (Supposedly an original question) Question 197 http://www.sawaal.com/aptitude-and-Reasoning/alphabettest-questions-and-answers.html Question 198 https://books.google.co.in/books? id=qfMc_A5pRyUC&pg=RA2-PA105&lpg=RA2PA105&dq=If+Monday+falls+on+1st+of+October, +which+day+will+fall+three+days+after+the+20th+of+th at+month?&source=bl&ots=LFgSNE0KUX&sig=f5yq4_WSrhPTpr22qzZdFlN07Y&hl=en&sa=X&ei=ngtzVargHpa HuAT2yIG4CQ&ved=0CCQQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=If %20Monday%20falls%20on%201st%20of%20October%2C %20which%20day%20will%20fall%20three%20days %20after%20the%2020th%20of%20that%20month %3F&f=false Question 199 https://books.google.co.in/books? id=ZohiQ_xiIOYC&pg=PP12&lpg=PP12&dq=in+the+word+G RAPHOLOGIST,if+1st+and+7th&source=bl&ots=MGrQAxPnf e&sig=XXyGwZJaRvF1dLj92rQoKAnh3Q&hl=en&sa=X&ei=eWdxVeLVEM6puwT3_q7wCg &ved=0CB8Q6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=in%20the%20word %20GRAPHOLOGIST%2Cif%201st%20and%207th&f=false Question 200 http://exam2win.com/logical-reasoning/blood-relationtest/part1/questions-answers-2.jsp 38 out of 40 questions in LOGICAL are exactly copied (along with the exact order of options) from some source or the other. ANNEXURE P-31 SpicyIP, June 12, 2015 ON THE COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST, 2015- A.K.A. THE COPYC(LAT) By Spadika Jayaraj The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT), held on May 10th, 2015 saw 30,000 (mostly) young, enthusiastic teenagers vie for the 2000-odd seats available in India's prestigious National Law Schools. This year, the test went online for the first time, and while many were apprehensive about the challenges that this would bring, nobody anticipated the scale of problems that the exam would eventually throw up. Some of the major issues were those of incorrect questions, incorrect answers and adelayed declaration of the ranks. To add to the list, recently, an Open Letter to the CLAT Committee published in LegallyIndia has revealed that a whopping 135 of the 150 questions in the exam were plagiarized. While SpicyIP has in the past reported several instances of high-profile plagiarism (famous 'copycats' include Martin Luther King Jr himself); in this post, I examine the copyright infringement aspect of the alleged plagiarism. [Long post] The Alleged Plagiarism The authors of the Open Letter have found that most of the questions in the CLAT 2015 paper were copied from Guidebooks that were designed to help those taking the Common Admission Test (CAT- the entrance test for the Indian Institutes of Management). Apart from this, around 27 questions were from gktoday.in, an online portal that provides current affairs updates. The authors of the letter even provided links to the google books images of the copied portions. They allege that not only have several questions been copied verbatim, the order of the answeroptions as well as the errors in some of the questions has been copied as well! When confronted, one of the members of the CLAT Committee allegedly responded by saying that the expert committee constituted to set the paper found it difficult to come up with new questions as "everything now is in the public domain...there is hardly any question bank available" (sic). The Copyrightability of MCQs While the term 'public domain' was probably used loosely and not in the legal sense in the above statement, it is still worth considering whether Multiple Choice Questions really are in the public domain. The answer is not obvious because MCQs have to cross at least three barriers in order to be considered copyrightable: The Originality test, the IdeaExpression Dichotomy and theMerger Doctrine. The IdeaExpression Dichotomy in Copyright Law provides that Copyright shall only protect the expression of ideas, and not the ideas themselves. Similarly, facts in themselves are not copyrightable and are in the public domain. Flowing from this principle is the Merger Doctrine, according to which if the idea and expression are so closely tied together that there are few ways in which the idea can be expressed, the expression will not be copyrightable either. Depending on the type of question, several MCQs cannot probably be copyrighted at all. Consider the question "What is 2+2?" and the options A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 and D) 4. Not only will it be a stretch to call this an original literary work, it will also probably be hit by the Merger Doctrine as there are only so many ways in which you can test a person what 2+2 is. However, for longer questions that require more creativity in wording, the American Courts of Appeal have consistently held that MCQs are copyrightable (for example, see Assocn of American Medical Colleges v. Mikaelian "the MCAT questions are undoubtedly the result of original work performed by scientists and scholars retained by AAMC and the Research Institute to create MCAT questions...the mere fact that MCAT questions refer to scientific fact does not place these questions in the public domain."). Note that the Courts have held that the questions themselves are copyrightable, and not just question papers (see Educational Testing Service v. Katzman). The copyrightability of a question will therefore depend on the length and creative nature of the question. In the context of CLAT, the general knowledge questions, for example, are less likely to be copyrightable than the ones in the legal reasoning section, as they are more fact-based. The De-Minimis Defense? In India, the Supreme Court has held that question papers are copyrightable as they are the intellectual creation of their authors. However, one cannot conflate this argument with the one that the questions themselves are copyrightable, as the setting of papers involves a fair amount of "selection, judgment and experience" as well (which are factors that help the case of copyrightability). If question papers alone are copyrightable and not the individual questions, one can argue that borrowing just one or two questions from a question paper or a bank of papers will not constitute infringement as it is a small portion of the work (in other words, take up the De Minimis Defense). However, even if one were to read the law so favourably for CLAT, it appears that they cannot escape. The Open Letter claims that in the General Knowledge section, 27 questions were from a single source-gktoday.com. Furthermore, all these 27 questions were lifted from a bank of 300 questions on the website, a hefty 10 percent. To put that in context, that would be the percentage equivalent of directly lifting 30 pages from a 300-page book. Here, I am assuming that the Expert Committee did not license the work from gktoday.in. If they have licensed it, it might put them on the right side of copyright law, but at the cost of a possible ethical compromise. Fair Dealing It is unlikely that Fair Dealing would come to the rescue of the CLAT Committee. While the US Four- Factor 'Fair Use' Test (that inquires into the nature, purpose, amount and effect on the market of the use) might save the CLAT's actions as the questions were used by the state for a noncommercial purpose, the Indian Copyright Act requires the use to fall within one of the strictly defined exceptions under S.52. However, I am open to correction here. Interestingly, in acase where a publishing house was sued by the licensees of CBSE for publishing Board Exam question papers, the Court held that publishing the questions of a public examination was not fair dealing and "public interest" cannot be a defense for copyright infringement. A Tad Bit Hypocritical For all the 'borrowing' from the public domain that the CLAT Expert Committee appears to have done, CLAT aspirants should at least be able to expect in return that the CLAT papers themselves are in the public domain. Currently, these papers are behind a paywall on the CLAT website. They don't just charge a nominal sum for the printing and shipping of papers- the papers can be downloaded upon the payment of Rs.250. As a public exam conducted by a state authority, there is definitely a public interest angle to such an expectation. The CLAT today is an extremely competitive exam which poses several structural and economic barriers for law aspirants below a certain socio-economic threshold. Not only is the application fees exorbitantly high, the papers implicitly and explicitly test advanced-level English skills (and is therefore extremely difficult to crack for those from a vernacular-medium education), and accessing preparation materials is nearly impossible in rural areas without the internet and/or coaching centers. This has stark implicationsFor instance, the results of a Diversity Surveyconducted by IDIA (a non-profit movement that aims to make legal education more inclusive) in the National Law Schools reveal that less than 1% of the first year student population in the 'top 4? Law Schools is from all the North-Eastern states put together. Open access to these papers will certainly help in evening out the playing field for the CLAT. By way of comparison, the UPSC, the authority that administers the aptitude test for the Civil Services, publicly makes available papers from 2011 onwards. On the other end of the spectrum from the UPSC, the website for the CAT has a disclaimer that "disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing, or facilitating transmission and storage of the contents of the CAT or any information therein in whole or part thereof... may constitute a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for a term up to three years and fine up to Rs. two lakhs" . Will the CAT Committee have a cause of action against the CLAT Committee? Are they both instrumentalities of the state? Let us know in the comments. ANNEXURE P-32 The New Indian Express, June 10, 2009 After leak, Law test ends in tied tangle By Express News Service HYDERABAD: In an unsual development, the ranking of as many as 1,123 candidates, who appeared for the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT)-2009 for admission into 11 National Law Universities in the country, has been tied! The results of the test, conducted this year by the Hyderabadbased Nalsar, have not been declared as yet but the names of all the candidates who secured the same score at CLAT have been put on the varsity's website on Monday. Such candidates have been asked to submit marks secured by them in 10+2 and Matriculation by June 10. According to the website, four criteria are followed to break the tie: a) aggregate of plus 2; b) aggregate at Matriculation; c) age and d) draw of lots. The common entrance test for law admissions was introduced last year and the first such test was conducted by the National Law School, Bangalore. This year, Nalsar was asked to hold the test. Originally scheduled for May 17, the test was put off after the question papers were found to have been 'intercepted' during transit from Hyderabad to Lucknow through a private courier service. The test was later held on May 31 after a fresh set of question papers was despatched to various centres by engaging the services of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF). According to those in the know of affairs, what could have possibly led to such a high number of tied rankings from among the 13,000 who took the test this year was the fact that some of the question papers were relatively easy. Therefore, a significant number of students might have cracked them. Also, manual correction was said to have been done as technical problems reportedly cropped up during the valuation of OMR sheets and this might have given scope for human error. However, varsity officials denied manual valuation. The Nalsar website, however, did not mention the score secured by the tied candidates. Interestingly, the number of tied rankers is more than the number of seats available in all the 11 colleges which are around 900! ANNEXURE P-33 Legally India, November 10, 2014 CLAT 2015: 12 new test centres & states, INSTANT results, new preferences & 6 top questions answered By Prachi Shrivastava The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2015 convenor, RMLNLU Lucknow, has added 12 new test cities since last year, has changed the university preferences system for candidates and has proposed to change the question paper pattern for LLM candidates. The CLAT implementation committee, comprising of the registrars of all participating national law universities (NLU), in its meeting on Saturday finalised 33 Indian cities in which to conduct the CLAT 2015. Each city will have several test centres, said RMLNLU vice chancellor (VC) Gurdip Singh. Haryana, Uttarakhand and Kashmir - which had no test centres in previous years - will now have Kurukshetra, Dehradun and Srinagar, respectively. The convenor also added Amritsar as Punjab's second test city in addition to already existing Patiala. Uttar Pradesh will now have Agra, Varanasi, Allahabad and Gorakhpur in addition to Lucknow. Instant results In CLAT 2015, the exam results will be declared on the spot as soon as the exam is over. Each examinee will have his access to his rank and score at the test centre, immediately after the exam. Singh told Legally India that the implementation committee has decided that this year candidates will submit their university allotment preferences after the results have been declared. This is a change from last year, when candidates submitted their university preferences at the time of submitting the form to take the exam. Singh explained that the first list which will be issued after declaration of the result will show the ranks of all candidates and will show the universities allotted to each candidate based on his or her rank. After this list is published candidates will be given the option to state their university preferences and subsequent lists will be published based on ranking and preferences. Question areas headlined LLM admission candidates may be attempting a changed CLAT question paper this year. In Saturday's meeting it was proposed that the paper must spell out the subject areas from which a given question is asked. Until last year the question paper was a mixed bunch of questions from any area. This proposal has been circulated for the approval of the core committee. In previous meetings it had already been decided to do away with subjective questions in the LLM question paper, as reported by Legally India. FAQs & Answers Legally India commenters posted some queries related to the CLAT 2015 under our previous story, for which we sought clarification from professor Singh. Q. CLAT 2015 has gone online. Does this mean that offline form submission has been completely done away with and it is mandatory to submit the form online? A. Yes, the offline form submission option does not exist anymore. Q. I do not have a State Bank of India (SBI) bank branch near me. Will I have to go looking for the next nearest one? A. Singh told Legally India that payment from all other banks, in addition to SBI, will be accepted. Q. I do not have access to the internet. Why're you complicating things for me RMLNLU? A. Prof Singh says: "Offline is more complicated. Why don't you just go to any bank branch nearest to you and submit online?" Q. Is there any change in the question paper pattern? A. No change for LLB. For LLM, change as explained above in the story. Q. Can we change a marked answer if we feel our choice is incorrect? Until last year this was a problem since we had to mark our answers with a pen on OMR sheets. A. Yes on computer screens you can easily change your answer choice. Q. I have a sight problem which doesn't allow me to use a computer screen unless considerably zoomed in. Will the zoom in option work properly on CLAT test centre screens? A. Yes this technicality has been looked into. For further assurance, do remember to take the mock tests which will be made available on the CLAT website, and check for and report any technical difficulties. Also feel free to ask the counsellors which CLAT will make available to you at the test centres before the exam. If you have any other CLAT questions, please post them in the comments below and we'll ask the convenors soon. ANNEXURE P-34 Legally India, May 29, 2015 HC [maybe] orders mysteriously CLAT missing convenor question to publish papers [CLARIFICATION] By Prachi Shrivastava The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2015 convenor RMLNLU Lucknow will have to publish a full merit list of candidates of the CLAT 2015, on CLAT's website, as per Tuesday's Allahabad high court order. The CLAT 2015 brochure provides that the convenor will release the question paper [see clarification below] and the full list of candidates with ranks and scores, on the exam's official website, after the exam. But the convenor RMLNLU has not yet complied with this requirement more than two weeks after the 10 May exam. Aditya Dua and 10 other petitioners filed a writ (32024 of 2015) in the Allahabad high court, through advocate Manish Goyal, to compel the convenor to publish the paper and the list, raising the following allegations in the writ: ? "the girl candidate who has secured a State Rank of 51 is shown to have obtained a State Women Ranking of 105. ? a person who scored 26.25 marks was given an All India ranking of 4539 while another candidate with a similar CLAT score was given an All India Rank of 25073. ? serious allegations of malafide against the respondent nos. 4 and 5 who appear to have been the only institutes informed of the fact that the examination would be online examination. ? There are also serious allegations against the said respondents as carried in paragraphs 33 and 34 of the writ petition, thus a large number of students from these Institutes alone have secured very high marks. ? As per the Brochure result was to be published on the website carrying over all merit list of declared candidates along with their categories. He submits that the same has not been done and published by the organizing University till date." Tuesday was the last day of CLAT counselling because of which the matter was listed urgently and Justice Yashwant Varma ordered the convenor "to publish the results in accordance with the provisions of Brochure as appearing at page 38 of the paper book or show cause to this Court". For consideration of the other allegations justice Varma posted the matter for hearing on 9 July. Clarification 3 June 2015: Legally India initially reported that the court had ordered publication of the question papers, in accordance with the brochure. However, the order only mentions that results should be publsihed in accordance with the brochure. The CLAT brochure does not explicitly mention that question papers should be uploaded, although a previous version of the FAQ on the CLAT website did. It therefore appears that the high court order may not have explicitly ordered the publication of the answer and question sheets, subject to whether the FAQ would be deemed to be part of the brochure on the website. RMLNLU vice chancellor Prof Gurdip Singh was not reachable for comment by phone at the time of going to press. In November 2014 Singh told Legally India that the first list which will be issued after declaration of the result will show the ranks of all candidates and will show the universities allotted to each candidate based on his or her rank. After this list is published candidates will be given the option to state their university preferences and subsequent lists will be published based on ranking and preferences. CLAT has faced writs since its first edition, including one where it was seen that the petitioner had lost out on a Nalsar Hyderabad seat due to a mistake in the question paper, and several others on errors in university allotment lists which are published on CLAT's website, before counselling ends, each year. ANNEXURE P-35 Legally India, June 1, 2015 CLAT 2015 allotments late, scheduled tomorrow after technical & other issues with reservations By Prachi Shrivastava The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2015's first university allotment list will be released tomorrow (2 June), according to a notification on CLAT's website, after having originally been scheduled to be released yesterday (31 May). The notification stated: "Due to some technical reasons, publication of first indicative seat allocation list is postponed for 2nd of June, 2015." CLAT 2015 convenor RMLNLU Lucknow's vice chancellor (VC) Prof Gurdip Singh has not been reachable by phone and messages since last week. However, a source close to the process told Legally India that the delay in releasing the preference list was due to many different state and other reservations according to which ranks are allocated to candidates. According to the Allahabad high court's 25 May order in a writ challenging CLAT 2015 for its irregularities, RMLNLU was directed to publish the university allotment list and the question paper of the exam on its website. ANNEXURE P-36 Legally India, June 2, 2015 CLAT publishes answer keys after writ, but errors and more alleged [CLARIFICATION] By Prachi Shrivastava The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2015 question paper and answer key was published on the exam's official website yesterday, following a 25 May Allahabad high court order in a writ praying for directions to the CLAT 2015 convenor to publish the question paper o CLAT's website. Clarification: RMLNLU joint registrar Dr JD Gangwar, in an email clarified today that the high court had only directed the convenor to publish the CLAT 2015 result and had said nothing about publishing its question paper. The high court had on 25 May ordered CLAT 2015 convenor RMLNLU Lucknow to publish the merit list of candidates on its website. 11 petitioners had filed a writ before the high court when, despite it being specified in the CLAT 2015 brochure, the convenor did not publish the question paper for several days after the 10 May exam. The first university allotment list is due to be released on CLAT's website today, after CLAT notified on its website yesterday that it could not follow the 31 May schedule to release the list due to "some technical reasons". A candidate's email to the CLAT help desk, to which Legally India was copied in, stated that there were errors in the answer key. The email stated: "i am the applicant for clat 2015 P G program.Today i saw and compared answer key and my marks summary ,i noticed following points1.)many questions' correct answers are different in answer key and marks summary 2)many questions attempted by me correctly were wrongly numbered in marks summary 3)according to answer key my many attempted answers are right but according to marks summary they are wrong." CLAT mentor Rajneesh Singh agreed that there were apparently some errors in the answer key, and added that due to several sets of papers having been set, the answer key currently published was problematic: "They have mailed just one set of question papers. This does not help. No one is sure if they have been checked correctly or not. The response sheet has no meaning because of two reasons. 1. It should have been instantly mailed the moment exam got over or submit button was clicked. Otherwise what is the guarantee that it can not be manipulated. And the response sheet came after lots of pressure. 2. When they are not issuing all sets of question papers then how will the student check." RMLNLU vice chancellor Prof Gurdip Singh was not reachable for comment by phone and messages since last week. ANNEXURE P-37 Legally India, June 3, 2015 First rare word from CLAT convenor in 10 days: Correction that HC did not force answer key disclosure (but why RML did still unclear after CLAT website edited) By Prachi Shrivastava The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2015 secretariat yesterday clarified that it was under no obligation to publish the CLAT 2015 question papers and answer keys on CLAT's website, despite only having made the publication after receiving requests from several candidates and a court case demanding the keys. CLAT 2015 convenor RMLNLU Lucknow, via joint registrar Dr JD Gangwar, wrote an email yesterday to Legally India after repeated unsuccessful attempts by us to get in touch with Gangwar and RMLNLU vice chancellor Prof Gurdip Singh at least since since last week Sunday (24 May): "Some of the news items (29.05.2015 and 02.06.2015) relating to CLAT - 15 published on your website were brought to our notice. On examination of your news details, we found these news items unfounded and based on sentiments of desperate unsuccessful candidates. This is to bring to your notice that:? ALD H.C. order dated 25.05.2015 does not direct CLAT-15 authorities about publication of question papers. It only directs 'to publish the results in accordance with the provisions of the Brochure' or 'show cause to the Court'. You might be aware that CLAT-15 has already published results in accordance with the CLAT-15 brochure and the candidates are able to access the results through their personal login accounts. The CLAT-15 office will apprise the Hon'ble Court of the same in due course. ? Decision of uploading the question paper on the website of the CLAT has been taken by the CLAT on its own in view of numerous applications of the candidates to provide them question paper. No Court has directed for uploading the question paper so far. Prestigious and popular websites like yours are expected to adhere to highest standards of balanced reporting based on the facts on record and not on the perceptions of certain individuals. We expect you to please be careful and factual on reporting on the CLAT-15 issues, we shall be happy to provide you required inputs whenever we are approached." Legally India has added the following clarification to those stories that the high court may not have ordered disclosure of the question paper: "One of the petitioners had told Legally India at the time of first publication that the court had ordered publication of the question papers, in accordance with the brochure. However, the order only mentions that results should be published in accordance with the brochure. The CLAT brochure does not explicitly mention that question papers should be uploaded, although a previous version of the FAQ on the CLAT website did. It therefore appears that the high court order may not have explicitly ordered the publication of the answer and question sheets, subject to whether the FAQ would be deemed to be part of the brochure on the website." According to the following snapshot of a 15 March 2015 version of the CLAT website's frequently asked questions (FAQ) page, via www.archive.org, all candidates were told they would be mailed the question paper and answer key for the exam after the exam: However, a search on www.archive.org suggests that this part of that FAQ page wasrecently changed to remove this promise altogether. Legally India has reached out to Gangwar for clarification on the position yesterday and why that change was made. 11 petitioners had approached the Allahabad high court for directions to RMLNLU to publish the question paper and answer key on its website. Although the high court only directed RMLNLU to publish the university allotment list on its website, in accordance with the provisions of the earlier CLAT 2015 brochure, the CLAT secretariat on Monday published one question paper and answer key of the LLB and LLM CLAT 2015 on the website. The publication of the paper and the key attracted complaints of errors from several candidates. To consider the errors, RMLNLU has now indefinitely postponed the publication of the first university allotment list that was due to be published on the website yesterday, after a delay of two days from original schedule already. ANNEXURE P-38 Legally India, June 9, 2015 CLAT uploads password protected 'first indicative seat allocations' (despite massive remaining question marks over scoring) By Prachi Shrivastava The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) committee has published the "first indicative seat allocation" for undergraduate students on its website. However, the list, unlike in previous years, is only accessible with a registered CLAT taker's email ID and password, and it is not known at the time of going to press whether candidates get access to the full list or just to their individual ranks. Please share what you find in the comments. Thousands of students on Saturday saw their marks and ranks get readjusted after the CLAT held by RMLNLU Lucknow admitted to just two wrong questions. That is despite at least six other questions obviously having either two correct answersor being unanswerable. Angry CLAT aspirants have also alleged in a letter that 135 out of 150 questions were plagiarised from other sources, giving coaching institutes that happened to rely heavily on those sources a major advantage. ANNEXURE P-39 Legally India, July 23, 2015 Membership of CLAT 2015 'expert panel' is top-secret, immune to RTI, claims RMLNLU By Prachi Shrivastava The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2015 expert panel, which was formed twice to examine alleged errors in the CLAT 2015 question papers, was composed of secret members. CLAT 2015 convenor RMLNLU Lucknow rejected a right to information (RTI) request for the names of the members of the panel which had dismissed allegations that one-fifth of the CLAT 2015 LLB paper was error-ridden. RMLNLU, through its joint registrar Dr JD Gangwar, replied on 13 July to a 29 June RTI by Alok Ratnoo, refusing to disclose the names of the expert panel members and also stating that "grievances received [on CLAT's email ID helpdesk@clat.ac.in] within a specific time were looked in" by the panel. RMLNLU had formed the expert panel twice. It formed the panel once two days after CLAT declared results for the first time and candidates and CLAT experts alleged up to 40 errors in the LLB paper and 16 errors in the LLM paper. The first panel reported that there were six errors in the LLM paper and only two errors in the LLB paper. Several writs were filed by candidates dissatisfied with this report and pursuant to the Bombay high court's order in a writ before it, RMLNLU formed the expert panel for the second time. But the convenor did not notify about the formation of this expert panel on CLAT's website, and before the timeline given in the Bombay high court's order could lapse RMLNLU announced on the CLAT's website that the CLAT admission process for 2015 stood closed. RMLNLU then reported to the Punjab & Haryana high court in a sealed cover that the second expert panel had found that none of the dozens of alleged errors in the CLAT 2015 papers were in fact errors. The P&H HC judge looking at the sealed cover objected to this report observing that even he could make out at least one error in the LLB question paper. RMNLU Lucknow did not even notify the result of the second expert panel's examination on the CLAT's website. Gangwar had told Legally India in a phone interview after the first expert panel was formed that he couldn't reveal the names of the panel members to protect them from being contacted individually by stakeholders, about various errors. In the same interview he had claimed that RMLNLU was committed to the cause of transparency during CLAT 2015, but later rejected an RTI asking for a copy of the three MoUs signed between CLAT NLUs since 2007. An older RTI later revealed thatthe earliest of the three MoUs had already been publicly disclosed three years ago by then CLAT convenor HNLU Raipur. ANNEXURE P-40 Legally India, July 14, 2015 CLAT paper error-free, says expert committee report: HC judge sceptical By Prachi Shrivastava The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2015 expert committee has found that the CLAT 2015 LLB question paper has no errors, the Punjab & Haryana high court was told yesterday in a writ filed by CLAT 2015 candidate Agrima Lailer on 12 June through advocate Ravinder Malik. Lailer told Legally India that CLAT 2015 convenor RMLNLU Lucknow's counsel yesterday submitted a sealed cover to the Punjab & Haryana high court stating that the expert committee - formed for the second-time since the CLAT 2015 results were declared - has reported that the errors referred to it were, in fact, not errors. P&H HC Justice RK Jain, who was discussing the contents of the sealed cover, responded to the convenor's counsel that even he could spot at least one obvious error, citing the analogy question 25 that had clearly relied on wrong definitions in the word pair 'dulcet-raucous', Lailer said. Lailer's writ, which brings before the court 16 alleged errors in the question paper, is posted to be heard on Thursday. This is the second error-evaluation expert panel to have been formed by the CLAT office this year, on the orders of the Bombay high court, after the first panel only found two errors out of many more alleged errors referred to it by candidates and experts. Writs in various high courts, including Lailer's, have so far alleged nearly 40 errors in the LLB question paper. Most NLUs have already started with admissions despite earlier high court orders asking for admissions to be conditional on the expert committee's findings. ANNEXURE P-41 Legally India, July 10, 2015 Revealed: 8-page MOU that CLAT tried to hide under RTI but that HNLU disclosed 3 years ago By Prachi Shrivastava The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) founding Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was publicly disclosed by HNLU Raipur in 2012, three years before CLAT 2015 convenor RMLNLU Lucknow claimed exemption under Right to Information (RTI)for the same MoU. The MoU dated 23 November 2007, under which India's first seven national law universities (NLU) had agreed for the first time to admit students not through their separate entrance tests but through the CLAT, was requested together win the 2014 MOU by the Increasing Diversity by Increasing Access (IDIA) Intiative via a Right to Information (RTI) request. RMLNLU then claimed confidentiality exemptions under the RTI Act for the 2007 and 2014 MoUs and rejected the RTI, as reported on Monday. RMLNLU appeared to rely on Section 8(e) of the RTI Act that: "notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, there shall be no obligation to give any citizen information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information". However, in 2012 DSNLU Vishakhapatnam student Ayush Jaiswal had filed an RTI for the 2007 MoU with then CLAT convenor HNLU Raipur which had provided the MoU's copy to Jaiswal in response. The full eight-page MOU is embedded below. Core committee duties The MoU provided that beginning with NLSIU Bangalore in 2008, the seven signatories will conduct the CLAT each year in rotation in order of their year of incorporation and that the vice chancellors (VC) of the seven signatories will form a CLAT core committee to: 1. Distribute CLAT's annual income and expenses 2. Decide the date, format and syllabus for CLAT each year 3. Prescribe qualifying marks for different categories of candidates 4. Demarcate geographical boundaries among the participating universities for the purpose of logistics and other arrangements for CLAT 5. Approve the quantum of honoraria to be paid for various CLAT activities 6. Prepare a report on behalf of the outgoing convenor for the incoming convenor 7. Prescribe statistical reports on the various aspects of CLAT 8. Oversee the functioning of the committee Convenor / implementation committee duties It also provided that each VC will nominate a person to be on a CLAT implementation committee which will implement all aspects of conducting CLAT and will be chaired by the CLAT convenor. The implementation committee will also: 1. Frame the agenda of each core committee meeting 2. Implement non-confidential operations such as work on advertisements and press releases, CLAT brochure, sale of application forms and other documents, fixing test centres, liaisoning geographical with distribution participating of institutions logistics, elimination for of duplicate applications, admit cards, test centre guidelines and instructions, result declaration, counselling related work, releasing results maintenance of accounts. to non CLAT law schools, 3. Implement confidential operations such as preparing guidelines for paper setters, selecting paper setters, randomising choice of paper setters and deciding time and place for paper setting exercise, ensuring confidentiality and secrecy for paper setting, delivering sealed envelopes of papers to committee chair, selecting secure printing press and dealing with it, coding of OMR sheets, answer books and question papers, freezing solutions, evaluation "once or double as the case may be", tabulating results and preparing merit list. The core committee would also decide the rate of selling the CLAT application form each year starting with Rs 2000 per form in 2008. 50 per cent of the application form proceeds would go the convenor and the remaining 50 per cent will be shared equally between law schools on the rest of the core committee, as reported last month in Legally India and Mint. The MoU does not appear to spell out whether which institution will bear the CLAT's costs, apparently leaving it up to the core committee to decide. For the release of CLAT score to non CLAT universities a fee of Rs 1,000 was to be levied in 2008 and the proceeds divided equally between the law schools on the entire core committee. The 2007 MoU did not specify whether CLAT universities had the power to draw up any criteria to admit newer NLUs to CLAT, however RMLNLU VC Prof Gurdip Singh told Legally India last year that the new MoU entered into between 14 NLUs then provided for such a criteria. Under the new criteria DSNLU was admitted to CLAT. The MoU's provisions point out that through the core committee and the implementation committee all participating law schools are equally involved in the conduct of the CLAT each year even though the responsibility for the conduct devolves on the convenor for any given year. Different procedure this year VCs Legally India spoke to last month about this year's CLAT debacle provided a different picture. HNLU Raipur VC Prof Sukh Pal Singh commented: "Unlike previous years the core committee meeting was not held this year before the declaration of the result. So we are in the same situation as you. We have not been given the report of the expert committee and we have not met for us to comment on anything. Like you we can also only clarify from the convenor." Singh said that the core committee has met only once for CLAT 2015 and that was in October 2014. He added: "We are not interested right now in a core committee meeting. We just want that whatever are the problems they should be resolved and whatever the decision, it should be communicated to everyone transparently." NLUJAA Guwahati VC Prof Vijender Kumar said last month: "There are supposed to be quite a few [errors remaining in the paper]. The number is supposed to be quite big. "As a member of the core committee I don't oppose them but I am of the strong view that there should be a centralized institution for the core issues of CLAT. Many core issues can be left open to core committee members. Before publishing of the result had there been a meeting of all the VCs and the matter discussed thoroughly [..]. "Salary of permanent staff can be paid from revenues generated from CLAT. "I have also requested the convenor for a meeting of the core committee for a discussion so that the future of the students is not put at stake. There should be some consensus among [the core committee]." ANNEXURE P-42 Legally India, June 30, 2015 Political protests outside RMLNLU gates vs CLAT as 5 writs linger: What can happen now? By Fawaz Shaheen As political protests were organised in Lucknow against the CLAT yesterday and the Rajasthan high court adjourned its hearing in the writ petition against the CLAT to today after the CLAT's senior counsel did not appear, we take a look at where the litigation stands while the national law schools prepare to close the process in July. According to the Facebook page of Akhil Bhartiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP) state committee member Shantanu Srivastava: "Amidst heavy rain in Lucknow today, more than 100 ABVP kaaryakartas reached the RMLNLU campus and started shouting slogans against the discrepancies in CLAT exam. Shocked by this unprecedented event, the RMLNLU administration called upon the police and locked the main gates from inside. Unstopped by this, the kaaryakartas climbed up the main gate and jumped inside the campus. At last the Procter of the university came out and received our memorandum addressed to the CM. Giving the RMLNLU administration one week's time, to resolve the issue, we all returned back. Going to Delhi tonight to meet Central Law Minister, Government of India, Sri Sadanand Gauda for the same issue. Jai Hind, Vande Matram." Legally India has reached out to RMLNLU Lucknow for comment but could not confirm whether there were in fact "more than 100" protestors. Politics aside, it could be an understatement to say that the Common Law Admission Test 2015 has landed itself in a mess. It is facing challenges in at least six high courts (that we know of) and has been the subject of multiple stay orders (and a fair bit of rumours and speculation) ever since the model answers and seat allocation lists began coming out over the past month. While advocates appearing for the CLAT convener before the Bombay high court have said that they are initiating proceedings to club all matters in the Supreme Court, it has become tough for budding NLU students to keep track of the disagreements and predict how it can ultimately be resolved. It also doesn't help that the office of the current year's CLAT convener at RMLNLU has been remarkably uncommunicative ever since the results came out. In how many places is CLAT 2015 facing legal proceedings? As far as we know, CLAT 2015 is facing proceedings in at least six high courts: Kerala,Jaipur, Jodhpur, Bombay, Jabalpur and Allahabad. Most of these cases relate to controversies over the accuracy of questions asked and the answers provided by CLAT 2015 in the exam, while the Allahabad high court ordered the CLAT to publish a full merit list. Has any high court ordered a stay on CLAT 2015 proceedings? How is the CLAT convener not in contempt if stay has been ordered? The Kerala high court had ordered a stay on the second allotment list for two weeks on 15th June. However, a lawyer for the CLAT convener in the Bombay high court told Legally Indiathat RMLNLU had still not been served with a copy of the court's order, therefore there was no question of contempt in releasing the new allotment lists. The question of whether the CLAT convenor had constructive notice of the Kerala high court order after news reports is more difficult to answer. The lawyer also told Legally India that the Bombay high court had never ordered a stay, unlike as reported by Legally India and other publications, relying on the order which . We have clarified the original articles. Are all cases being clubbed before the Supreme Court? When might that happen? Senior counsel Ravi Kadam, the advocate who appeared for the CLAT convener before Bombay high court has said that the process of clubbing all cases before different high courts and bringing them before the Supreme Court has been initiated. However, there is no official update as to when such a proceeding will be formally moved before the Supreme Court. For now, advocates for the CLAT convener are appearing before courts all over the country. What are the possible outcomes and how might the CLAT 2015 process be affected? For now, the allotment and admission process seems to be progressing as per procedure. The general tendency of the courts is that they rarely interfere with the admission process. As the Bombay High Court indicated on 25th June, only if the questions being contested are proved to be wrong will they consider giving any orders regarding the admission or allotment process. 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Status Jabalpur Bhopal in first changes list. second in of the 15 list, candidates Downgraded to maintained remains lower- status quo of unclear. preference first list. colleges second list. in ANNEXURE P-43 Legally India, June 6, 2015 CLAT aspirant's concerned dad: With great power comes great responsibility so why was the CLAT rubbish (again) this year? By Kian Ganz An anonymous and concerned CLAT aspirant's father rails against the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2015, which, as last year, he argues was of a disturbingly low quality. It had a number of wrong questions, wrong answers, printing errors, and grammatical and spelling errors, even if we don't argue about the general low quality of this copy-paste exercise. Even copy-paste requires careful verification of every single word that one copies from somewhere. Irreversible Damage When a few questions are wrong in a national-level competitive exam, the situation cannot simply be corrected by awarding bonus marks for each wrong question to all the examinees. Some of the deserving candidates would get unnerved or frustrated while attempting the wrong questions. It would impact their overall exam performance, and they would lose out in the process. Lack of Transparency Complete non-transparency in any system naturally brings about these kinds of disasters because those in command believe they are not accountable, they are beyond questioning, and therefore a very casual attitude, laxity, and worst of all, a sense of arrogance sets in. Non-transparency is the central characteristic of dictatorships, not of democratic systems. Who exactly sets the CLAT question paper? Who revises or verifies or approves it after it has been set? Who solves the questions actually to determine their accurate answers before copy-pasting from commercial books, websites, and printed materials of coaching institutes? Is there any individual or group or committee on whom the accountability can be pinned down? The answer is simply "No." There is a complete lack of accountability in a non-transparent system, which gives rise to such hopeless eventualities that play havoc with the careers of children. Unprofessional Questions Consider this sample from CLAT 2015, which is merely a representative of the entire question paper: "Name the largest e-commerce company in the world." Obviously, the question has been copy-pasted from some low-quality book or magazine. The question is unqualified per se. The appropriate question could be: "Name the largest ecommerce company by annual sales revenue in 2014," or "Name the largest e-commerce company by market capitalization in 2014," or "Name the largest e-commerce company by the number of employees in 2014." Business Standard reported on September 21, 2014 that Alibaba's market cap exceeded that of Amazon and eBay combined. However, the CLAT 2015 Answer Key declares, quite casually, "Amazon is the largest e-commerce company in the world." Cavalier Attitude This kind of recklessness happens in a non-transparent system when the paper-setter knows he is beyond questioning, and he is only next to the Almighty. The entire CLAT 2015 question paper reflects such cavalier attitude. A question paper will obviously become completely unbalanced when you copy-paste rampantly without applying any thought, and without tempering it with worldclass professionalism, knowledge and experience. The Burden of Responsibility A good question paper must perform a careful balancing act in the quality and nature of its questions in order to select the best talent. A national-level question paper is all-powerful. It decides the future of a generation. And as Spiderman says, great power comes with great responsibility. The hand of the paper-setter must tremble when he lifts the pen to select a question. He must know the enormous burden of a nation's future that his pen carries. ANNEXURE P-44 The Wire, June 6, 2015 The Mess-Up That is the Common Law Test: A Parent's Lament By Anju Gupta There are moments in every parent's life where certain images of their progeny get imprinted on the mind. Twentythree years of motherhood have left their share of footprints on the landscape of my memory but no image has been so fraught with despair, fear, uncertainty and anger at self and at the system as the look on my son's face when he reached home on the evening of 10th May after giving the entrance exam for the National Law Universities (NLUs) of India. Courage deserted me and I busied myself with everything that didn't need to be done so that I could avoid asking him the question: How was the paper? Under the National Law School of India Act, 1986, the first autonomous law school was set up in Bangalore. It admitted its first batch in 1987 paving the way for more NLU's being set up in different states, each trying to come up to, and maintain, the standards of NLS, Bangalore. They succeeded in giving law as a profession a makeover and made it so attractive and competitive that they started attracting the best brains and talent. Parents like me , till now attached like a limpet to the idea of engineering and medicine as careers for their children, could no longer trot out any reasoned argument against law- specially when confronted with the placement and salary figures. Till 2007 each NLU conducted its own entrance exam. The Common Law Admission Test was held for the first time in 2008 under the aegis of NLS, Bangalore. Like every entrance exam in India CLAT is tough by virtue of the fact that the number of seats on offer are extremely few--only 1336 in the 16 NLU'S. After removing the seats reserved for different categories only 1,069 are available to a general candidate. Total applicants this year? 40,000. My son was aware of this fact and threw himself into preparations from the day his 12th board exams endedgiving himself a month and a half to prepare. My husband and I watched in secret pride as he gave mock tests daily, went through past papers, and did as many exercises as he possibly could of the different sections. Fitting perfectly into the stereotypical role of middle class parents who know that 12th is THE year in their child's life we kept dipping into the funds we had kept aside for the +2 year and for the entrances. By the time the exam day came near my son was pretty confident of getting a decent score. This confidence was bolstered by his mock exams scores. Till everything came crashing like a pack of cards not just for him, but for most of those who gave the CLAT this year. The disillusionment is not so much for his rank which is still good enough to get him admission into many of the NLUs - it is for that system that promises to deliver but lands up betraying. Today the irony cannot be missed. The 40,000-odd candidates who appeared for the online Common Law Admission Test 2015 could have never imagined that even before they gained admission to the prestigious National Law Universities they would be a part of an engrossing legal and moral battle with all the classic elements of a courtroom drama. A drama to which they not only have a ringside view but are also divided neatly down the middle into the prosecution and the defence. Prof. Gurdip Singh, Vice Chancellor, Ram Manohar Lohia National Law University (RMLNLU), Lucknow, and the convenor of CLAT 2015, could have also never imagined that he would make it to newspaper headlines, television channels and be an objet de la haine in the homes of the students who appeared for the CLAT this year. Failures galore The charges vary: a paper which was inexplicably tough; questions were culled from previous years' papers of management entrance exams (CAT); general shoddiness and lack of transparency. The FAQ 13 on the CLAT official website had stated that question papers and answer sheets would be mailed to the students right after the exam in the interests of transparency. Not only were students not mailed their question paper and the answer sheet but FAQ 13 was also removed from the website. Allegations also abound about a couple of coaching centres in Lucknow being in the know about the paper and concomitantly students from these coaching centres performing very well in the exam; bucking tradition and custom no merit list was taken out; the question paper being uploaded only after 20 days from the exam date-that too at the directive of the Allahabad High court. Furious and upset students claim that their papers have been tampered with. The number of questions they attempted in the exam is not being reflected in their answer sheets. Social media was afire with angry allegations and complaints soon after the test was conducted at the poor cut and paste quality of the paper. The question paper itself has turned out to be the proverbial can of worms. The numbers vary from 30-40 but experts agree that many answers are wrong , questions wrongly framed and there are questions which have no correct answer options. Gautam Puri, an IIM Bangalore alumnus, cofounder CL Educate, and someone who has been coaching and mentoring test takers for entrance exams for more than two decades says that he has never felt so pained and aggrieved at a question paper as he feels at the CLAT 2015 paper. In his tellingly titled post 'Yeh Kahan Aa Gaye Hum' ('Where have we come'), he has divided the errors into two categories: Category I has 25 questions that have incorrect questions or answer choices that have harmed the students and therefore corrective action needs to be taken. Category II has errors in 5 questions that could be ignored (e.g. q. 22 and 23) because the student may have been able to solve, regardless. Arguably, the students should be compensated. Cut-and-paste job Unfazed by the allegations, Prof. Singh, has said on a television channel that an expert committee had been constituted to set the paper and once this paper (CLAT 2015) was set it was further whetted by a panel of four NLU VCs. A typical reaction to that claim is: In all their collective wisdom the expert committee and the panel could come up with a paper which is a cut, management entrance copy and paste job of past exam papers. Even this plagiarized job is a botched up one. The paper is riddled with grammatical and [typographical] errors. The VC also says that there is no error in the paper except for one typographical mistake. To give you an idea about how untrue this claim is, here are a few samples from the English section. Question 2: The critics censored (A) censured (B) the new movie because of its social unacceptability. The correct answer is of course B here but the official answer is A. Question 25: The analogy given is Dulcet : Raucous. The relationship between the two is clearly antonymous in nature and the C, Palliative correct answer option : Exacerbate. However, should option B, Crazy be : Insane has been given as the official answer and one the 'expert' committee is sticking to. There are definitely three more questions wrong in the English section alone. This makes it five questions definitely wrong in one section alone. CLAT is an exam in which even a minuscule 2-3 marks gained or lost can see one's rank change by 50-100 positions, or more. Minus any hysteria or hoopla there are at least 25 questions and answers which are wrong. As a parent who saw her son burning the midnight oil to crack the CLAT, I feel that justice is not being done when a process like conducting an entrance exam for which students and parents invest their time, money, hopes and aspirations is not being conducted in a correct and fool-proof manner. We have slowly allowed questionable morals and commercials to creep into every crevice of society. Could we not at least spare the education system and save our children? On the same channel, the honourable VC reiterated in dulcet tones that the paper is absolutely error-proof as corroborated by another expert committee set up in response to the allegations. Is anyone buying this? If one were to judge by the raucous voices, not many. Anju Gupta is a Delhi-based parent of a law school aspirant. ANNEXURE P-45 Change.org, August 10, 2015 Petitioning CLAT Core Committee Vice-Chancellors of National Law Universities (NLUs) End this CLAT-astrophe! Shamnad Basheer Mysore, India Dear CLAT-Chancellors: May we please petition thee? For an exam that's error free Year after year It's come under smear For no fault of yours But that of your peers Who conduct CLAT from scratch A robust rotating batch Reinventing the wheel With so much of zeal And yet mucking it much Past experience is such Two thousand nine All went fine Till the paper was leaked In a scam that reeked A second paper was done Quick questions spun Tricks and treats galore Leaving students so sore "Legal aptitude" screamed a heading! In a section worth shredding Posing questions, a forty On the law, oh so lofty! Sample this: What's the name of the case? Where judges bragged their technology base Holding the law shouldn't lag But sway with a tech-swag Where evidence could be taken Even by videoconferencing Would you know the answer sir? Or would this, in you, some dread, stir? Why test students on the law When they've got 5 years or more? To learn from you and your peer At a considerable cost of 3 lakhs per year! And what of legal "aptitude"? That heading, you used Not a single question we found In this paper so profound. Just when we thought The worst of CLAT had been wrought You continue your swing More errors you fling The best though, you saved for last An online exam and all that. 2015 seemed a boon But alas, we spoke too soon! For when the paper finally came CLAT would never be the same You tested for knowledge of a cancer protein Were you serious, or just menacingly mean? Or did you merely copy and paste From a medical paper, in bad taste? Plagiarise, it seems you did From multiple sources, on the internet grid. Experts say that more than half your paper Is likely to fall out of copyright favour! But t'was not just the copying Also some serious slopping A good 40 errors were discovered By CLAT gurus that gathered. Many more waiting to be found In a paper so (un) sound And yet you refuse to make amends Stubbornly strutting your arrogance Rubbishing RTI's, writs and the like Asking students to take a hike! What ails? Why this prolonged prick? When this exam is what makes you tick? The one filter that accounts for NLU pride And hides all else there is to hide. It's not about the money, is it? For that can cause quite a fit Mammon is no doubt mighty But can also be fleetingly flighty. We pray you get your act in order And desist from further fodder. For all and sundry Including Babli and Bunty Have mocked this CLAT As a jovian jaunt, that's a fact. They say it's no better than a lottery Where skill is trumped by luck and sorcery Why rely on new law schools each year? Who start from scratch, causing many a tear. Do set up a permanent space And hire experts that amaze Psychometrists and all That in test framing, stand tall Rather than winging this treat of a test With less than the very best. Indeed, if justice be the aim of law Future CLATs must be without flaw. LETTER TO CLAT Core Committee Vice-Chancellors of National Law Universities (NLUs) Dear CLAT-Chancellors: UPDATES 500 supporters 6 days ago Petition update 6 days ago Reaching 500 Signatures! Thanks for your support to this important cause. We're close to 500 signatures. Just 5 short of 500! Please encourage your colleagues and friends to sign the petition and help reform CLAT. 250 supporters 2 weeks ago Shamnad Basheer started this petition weeks ago ANNEXURE P-46 LSAT Blog, August, 2011 Being an LSAT Testmaker | Interview Last week, I interviewed Stephen Harris, former LSAT questionwriter and author of Mastering Logic Games. (Yes, he's written hundreds of the questions that appear in your books of LSAT PrepTests.) (See all of my interviews with him.) Many of you submitted great questions for Dr. Harris after that interview, and he was kind enough to conduct a second interview with me. Our discussion follows. 1. You mentioned in our last interview that you worked on a freelance basis and that ACT/LSAC only bought the items (questions) they liked. What were you paid per item accepted, and, once you got the hang of things, how many items would you typically write for every accepted item (e.g. 1 out of 5)? The LSAT format changed in the early 1990s, and I started writing items late in 1992. At first the pay rate was $75 for each accepted LR item, but it went up to $85 per item at some point, and that's what it was when I stopped writing LSAT items in fall of 1997. I imagine that it has gone up a bit, but I will say that, compared to most other item writing gigs, that's a pretty high rate even today. An LR item writing assignment consisted of 10 items of various types - two weakeners, one assumption, etc. I probably averaged somewhere around 8.7 accepted items per assignment. Most writers I knew who averaged much fewer, say 6 or so out of 10, didn't write many items, or didn't write for long. 2. How is the itemwriting process different today than when you worked as an itemwriter? Does LSAC still use freelancers, or is it inhouse? I haven't worked on the LSAT in a long time, but as far as I know it's pretty much the same as it was back then. In fact, relying on contract item writers is now probably the industry norm. Since about 2000, the testing industry has exploded, and lots of folks who worked on the LSAT went to other places to oversee freelance item writers for other tests. I'm pretty sure that most tests work on the freelance model to a large degree. The GRE may be an exception; ETS may produce that one primarily inhouse. 3. In our last interview, you mentioned that LSAC sent you to a training workshop where they gave you a guide covering all Logical Reasoning item types, and a list of what nottodo. Can you elaborate on what each contained? What sort of feedback did LSAC offer on improving submitted items? LSAC's item writing guide was quite helpful. It made some general points about content, style, item stems, etc., and then they worked through exemplars of each item type. I seem to remember pointers for constructing good distractors, tips for disguising correct answers, etc. You quickly internalize most of it, so I don't remember much about the details. But I remember thinking that somebody put a lot of work into it, and that it was helpful. After each assignment was reviewed by my editor I had a phone call with him, and he would give me good, detailed feedback on all the items. I was given a clear reason why any rejected item was found unsuitable, and the accepted items that could have used some extra polish were discussed with me as well. It was in everybody's interest to make the process as efficient as possible. I will say that, given my experience working on other tests, the LSAT was especially good in the feedback department. 4. What's the formal process by which an LSAT question goes from being an itemwriter's draft of a question to becoming part of an actual scored exam? Here's how the process works, as best I understand it: first, an item writer sends the items to the testing company, which I believe for the LSAT is still ACT. Editors pick the ones they like, make whatever changes they think are appropriate, and then send the items to LSAC. The items receive another level of editing/review and then are placed on experimental test sections. The tests are administered and statistics are gathered. Then some of the items (the "good" ones) go to real test forms, while others go back for more editing and then another shot on an experimental section. [Ed. Read my series on the test-equating process.] 5. How are Reading Comprehension passages chosen? I'm not exactly sure how RC passages are chosen for the LSAT; it's probably pretty idiosyncratic. I am sure that writing assignments specify the general type of passage - natural science, humanities, etc., but after that it's probably up to the writer. In each released LSAT test, you'll find references to the articles that the RC passages are based on, so that will give you an idea of the kinds of sources that are used. 6. Are Logical Reasoning passages based on actual scholarship? A lot of them seem like real arguments. One of the points that I do remember from the LR writer's guide is that, to the extent the stimulus makes factual claims, they should be true, or at least reflect the current state of research in a field. So yes, many stimuli are based on real scholarship. But a stimulus might discuss a hypothetical vaccine, for example, that is not based on anything factual. So while it is the case that many LR items are based on actual scholarship, many are not. Often the basis for an item is a reasoning style, or a type of error, and then the item writer is simply looking for a topic to cloak the idea in. This is at least in part because item writing assignments specify the items that the writer needs to come up with by task, rather than by topic. 7. Would you agree that Logic Games have generally become easier over the years? Why don't we see pattern games anymore, and why do "rare" gametypes show up so sporadically? Well, I will say that preparing for logic games has gotten easier over the years, and I think this is really the phenomenon that your reader is remarking on. More specifically, if one were to grab your basic, pretty smart offthestreet person who wanted to go to law school and give her an AR section from an old test, and then a new one, she'd do about the same, on average. [Ed. Analytical Reasoning = Logic Games]. But, for someone who is actually studying to take the LSAT, there are definite differences. As your reader points out, the range of games seems to have shrunk significantly; virtually all recent games are instances of just a few types. But these games aren't intrinsically easier than the less frequently seen games, in my opinion. Rather, the point is that one who prepares today has a smaller "strike zone" than test takers in the past, to use a baseball metaphor, and that mastery of a few game types is more likely to translate into success today than it used to. 8. Do you see the LSAT's emphasis moving in any particular direction now or in the future? Do you see LSAC making any major changes in any section, like the addition of Comparative Reading in June 2007? I'm not sure where the LSAT is headed. I do know that they considered making it a computerbased test at one point, and that they were toying with the idea of items that were auditory played through headphones rather than written. For whatever reason, perhaps the cost of using testing centers, they decided to stick with the paper and pencil test. A safe assumption: the LSAT won't change much, or quickly at least, unless people start complaining about it (even more than they do now). 9. Do you believe the LSAT to be a test of innate skill or something people can learn to master? This is an interesting question. On any reasonable sense of "innate," the LSAT does not test innate skills; they are all cultural skills. Sure, certain abilities tend to make one better or worse suited for possessing these skills; a good shortterm memory, for instance, is undoubtedly helpful on the AR section. But all of the skills tested on the LSAT are cultural and acquirable, not innate. One interesting point that the question presupposes, but that I think is especially important, is that the LSAT is a test of skills, "knowhow" rather than "knowthat." The LSAT is a lot more like tying your shoes, or playing a game of cards, than recalling chemistry facts with each item, getting the correct answer is a matter of what you do, not what you know. Now for some people certain skills come "naturally," we like to say. Some folks are just really good at throwing a ball, others have a knack for long division. The rest of us, after some effort, can eventually learn the skill in question. When it comes to the LSAT, some people are undoubtedly "naturals," but pretty much anybody who wants to can master the relevant skills. It just involves a different, more reflective procedure for some of us than for others. Specifically, for us "learners" the key is to take a complex task that a natural LSAT testtaker performs intuitively, and to break it into its components so that we can learn the task piecebypiece, until with practice and repetition the complex task becomes second nature, like tying our shoes. I've tried this approach with hundreds of LSAT students, and several shoetying kids, with great results all around. 10. Do you think certain groups of people are at a greater disadvantage preparing for/taking the test than others, particularly those of lower socioeconomic status? Well, this is a complicated issue, and "disadvantage" is a funny word. There is no question that LSAT scores are correlated with family income, which I guess means socioeconomic status. There are thousands of individual exceptions to this trend, but as generalizations go it's pretty reliable. So, yeah, when it comes to taking the LSAT low socioeconomic status probably puts one at a disadvantage, statistically speaking. But this is hardly unique to the LSAT, first of all. Second, this doesn't mean that the test is biased against those of low socioeconomic status, any more than soccer and chess are biased against people who don't grow up playing them. All of the skills necessary for the LSAT are acquirable by any literate person comfortable with English, although (regardless of one's income level) the less familiar one is with these skills to begin with, the more work it will typically require to master them. But this is no different from most other aspects of life, and way "fairer" than some. Consider, for example, how relevant height is to being good at basketball. And height is something that a person has virtually no control over. By contrast, test takers have much more control over whether they possess the key attributes conducive to disadvantage success faced on by the a LSAT, particular and any initial individual is surmountable, through study of the relevant skills. One thing I'm pretty sure of: LSAC goes out of its way to make sure that the LSAT lacks cultural bias. Items are screened by representatives of several groups to ensure this. When I wrote items there was even a guy whose job it was to make sure that the test didn't discriminate against Canadians. 11. Aside from completing lots of LSAT PrepTests and getting your book, of course, what are your general LSAT prep recommendations? This is an open-ended question but I'll mention a few points that I think are really important. i. When you study, focus on a particular skill per study session. The more focused the better - not LR, but assumption items, for example; or not working through complete AR sections, but just setting up a bunch of different grouping games one after another, without worrying about solving the items at that time. ii. The process of elimination is very important; obviously for AR, but in a different, more procedural way for LR and RC. With these latter two, it is almost always a good approach to try to eliminate three answer choices first, and then to go back and select the correct one from the remaining two. On a related note: with LR and RC, the point of studying items is not just to identify the correct answers, but especially to understand the reasons why the others are incorrect, and to learn the general "distractor" strategies that will help you become more efficient in identifying these in the future. Repetition is key - look at the same items over and over. It is much better to be extremely familiar with several hundred items than to have a passing familiarity with a few thousand. iii. After you've taken a few practice tests, the value of taking additional test plummets, from an improvement perspective. The key to improvement is working on individual skills in isolation, not mindlessly plowing through a hundred items at a time, hoping to have done better this time than the last. Obviously, one wants to take enough practice tests to be comfortable on test day. But taking tests is not generally an efficient use of study time. iv. Practice with real LSAT items. They are cheap, and there is no substitute for the real thing. ANNEXURE P-47 CLAT Calendar Sl. No . 1 2 3 4 5 Description of Specific Activities Date and Day Date of Issue of First Admission 25th December, Notification 2014 (Thursday) Starting date for submission of 1st January, 2015 online application form (Thursday) Last date for submission of 15th April filled-in online application form 2015(Wednesday) Download of Admit Cards/Hall From Tickets 19th April, 2015 (Sunday ) Date of CLAT - 2015 Online 10th May, 2015 (Sunday) examination 3:00 PM to 5:00 Pm Declaration of results i.e. issue of Merit List (Category-wise) along with the notice to the 6 candidates for indicating their choices of preferences University using 20th May, 2015 (Wednesday) online candidate portal 7 Dates for indicating 21st-25th May, 2015 University-wise preference (Thursday - Monday) Note: The merit-cum- preference will be the basic principle of admission for CLAT 2015 and the allotment of candidates to various NLU(s) will be based on the same, wherein the candidates will be able to mark the preferences of the NLU(s) for admission within the stipulated period mentioned in schedule, failing which right to be the their considered for admission shall be forfeited. 8 9 Publication of 1st Indicative seat allocation list Dates for payment of 10th-13th June, 2015 counselling fee (Wednesday- Saturday) Note: The candidates failing to deposit the required fees by the specified date will forfeit their right to be considered for admission in CLAT - 2015 and their names will be dropped from the CLAT - 2015 Merit List. Dates allotted for seats 9th June, 2015 (Tuesday) or locking of exercising option for up-gradation against Indicative seat allocation list. Publication of 2nd allotment list 10 after payment of counselling fee Dates for payment counseling 11 15th June, 2015 (Monday) of fee: The candidates whose names have 16th-19th June, 2015 been added in 2nd provisional (Tuesday-Friday) allotment list against dropped out candidates. 12 Last Date of withdrawal from the Admission Process 19th June, 2015 (Friday) Dates for locking of allotted seats or exercising option for 13 up-gradation or for withdrawing from the Admission Process 16th-19th June, 2015 (Tuesday-Friday) against second allotment list Publication listDate of for 3rd allotment Payment 14 counseling candidates, of 21th June, fee: The (Sunday)21st-23rd whose 2015 June, names 2015 (Sunday - Tuesday) appear in 3rd allotment list. 15 Dates for admission against 24th-27th June, allotment list to be completed 2015 (Wednesday- by the participating NLU(s) Saturday) Dates for receiving details of 16 vacancies from the participating NLU(s) Publication of 4th and final 17 allotment list with up-graded and wait listed candidates up to 28th June, 2015 (Sunday) 1st July, 2015 (Wednesday) Dates for admission against 18 4th allotment list to be upto 2nd-4th July completed by the participating 2015 (Thursday-Saturday) NLU(s) 19 Date of closure of admission process by CLAT-2015 office 6th July, 2015 (Monday) Updated on 25/05/2015 Notes:i. The Convener, CLAT 2015 is authorized to extend the last date of application, if required. ii. If any of the proposed date falls on a public holiday/nonbanking day or in case of emergencies, the next working day will be reckoned as the due date. ANNEXURE P-48 Important Notice for CLAT-15 Candidates Attention of all concerned is invited to the earlier notice about the formation of expert committee to look into the representations about the accuracy of answers in respect of certain questions in UG & PG question papers of CLAT-15. It is to be further informed that based on the suggestions of the experts, the following decisions in respect of evaluation of response sheet have been taken:Question Paper (UG Programme): 1. Question No.: 186 (question ID: 1907), one mark has been given to all those candidates who have marked either option 'C' or 'D' as correct answer as both the options in this questions were identically same. 2. Question No.: 35 (Question ID: 1744), due to typographical error in this question, question has been withdrawn and one mark has been given to all the candidates appeared in the examination. Note: Prior to publication of the earlier rank list question No.: 182 (question ID 1902) had been withdrawn from the question paper due to typographical error and one mark had been awarded to all those candidates who have appeared in the examination, therefore, the revised rank list reflects the impact of changes as indicated above on 1 and 2 only. Question Paper (PG Progamme): The answers keys of the following questions have been changed: Question Question Previous Revised No. ID Answer Key Answer Key 11 59 64 69 119 131 211 259 264 269 319 331 A A A C D C B D C D A A The revised rank lists of CLAT-15 (UG and PG Programmes) have accordingly been uploaded on the website for the information of all candidates. Seat allotment in accordance with these rank lists is likely to take place by Monday (i.e. 08.06.2015). Furthermore, considering a substantial number of RTI applications for providing individual question paper and response sheets, it has been decided to provide individual question paper along with the response sheets to all candidates who have appeared in CLAT-2015. Now any candidate can view/download his/her individual question paper by logging in to his/her personal login account. Date: 06.06.2015 Convener, Implementation Committee CLAT - 15 ANNEXURE P-49 ITEM NO.25 COURT NO.8 SECTION XII SUPREME COURT OF INDIA RECORD OF PROCEEDINGS Petition(s) for Special Leave to Appeal (C) No(s). 18142/2015 (Arising out of impugned final judgment and order dated 10/03/2015 in WP No. 1256/2011 passed by the High Court Of Madras) UNION OF INDIA Petitioner(s) VERSUS SHAMNAD BASHEER & ORS. Respondent(s) (With appln. (s) for permission to file lengthy list of dates) Date : 27/07/2015 This petition was called on for hearing today. CORAM : HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE RANJAN GOGOI HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE N.V. RAMANA For Petitioner(s) Mr. Tushar Mehta,ASG. Ms. Geeta Luthra,Sr.Adv. Mr. Ajay Sharma,Adv. Mr. Abhishek Attrey,Adv. Mr. Ujjwal Jain,Adv. Mr. B. Krishna Prasad,Adv. For Respondent(s) Mr. Arvind Datar,Sr.Adv. Ms. Liz Mathew,Adv. Mr. R.Basant,Adv. Mr. Sai Vinod,Adv. Ms. Malavika Prasad,Adv. Mr. M.R. Philip,Adv. UPON hearing the counsel the Court made the following ORDER Heard the learned counsels for the parties and perused the relevant material. We do not find any legal and valid ground for interference. The special leave petition is dismissed. Signature Not Verified Digitally signed by Um?m? NOHmb?wm OOCE. 00:3.